Yes,Because not all disjoint no equivalent other have disjoint and equivalent
we can consider all infinite sets as equivlent sets if we go by the the cantor set theory.for eg. on a number line if we consider the nos. between 0 and 1 as a set then they are infinite. similarly the nos. between 0 and 5 can also be considered infinite and if considered as a set then they can be considered as equivalent
they are almost all equivalent - whole numbers also have the number 0, which natural numbers (counting numbers) do not.
No Equilateral triangles are triangles that have all of its three sides the same exact measurement. This means that if all the sides are the same then all of the interior angles will equal the same. And they always equal 60 degrees in an equilateral triangle. Equivalent traingles are just traingles that are equal in size and angles to another triangle equal. Equivalent traingles can be equilateral but they do not have to be.
Yes. A square has two sets of equal and parallel opposite sides. All four sides and all four angles (right angles) are equal.
Yes. Equivalent means equal.
No, because equivalent sets are sets that have the SAME cardinality but equal sets are sets that all their elements are precisely the SAME. example: A={a,b,c} and B={1,2,3} equivalent sets C={1,2,3} and D={1,2,3} equal sets
A = { 1,2,3,4,5,6 } and B = {1,2,3,4,5,6 } A and B above are EQUAL sets because ALL their elements are precisely the SAME. C = {a,b,c,d,e,f} and D = {3,4,5,6,7,8} C and D are EQUIVALENT sets because the NUMBER OF ELEMENTS in both the sets is the same i.e. 6.
no,because if for example :setA "A,B,C" and setB "D,E,F" they do have the same number of elements ,but they don't have the same elements.
Equivalent fractions are true when they show the same value: 2/4 = 1/2 = 4/8 all equal a half of the whole.
Two sets are said to be equal when all the elements in the two sets are same
Absolutely not
They have four sides, two sets of two parallel sides. These meet at right angles. The diagonals of a rectangle are of equal length.
Yes,Because not all disjoint no equivalent other have disjoint and equivalent
A square has 3 sets of parallel sides of equal length AND all the angles are 90 degrees. A rhombus has 2 sets of parallel lines of equal length, but the angles aren't all 90 degrees.
Two sets are said to be equal when all the elements present in the first set are there in the second set and vice-versa! It even applies for more than two sets. -19yoIndianLad
Equivalent sets are sets that have the same cardinality. For finite sets it means that they have the same number of distinct elements.For infinite sets, though, things get a bit complicated. Then it is possible for a set to be equivalent to a proper subset of itself: for example, the set of all integers is equivalent to the set of all even integers. What is required is a one-to-one mapping, f(x) = 2x, from the first set to the second.