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Q: Is it true that all equal sets are equivalent sets?
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Are all equivalent sets are equal sets?

Yes. Equivalent means equal.


Are equivalent sets equal sets why?

No, because equivalent sets are sets that have the SAME cardinality but equal sets are sets that all their elements are precisely the SAME. example: A={a,b,c} and B={1,2,3} equivalent sets C={1,2,3} and D={1,2,3} equal sets


Difference between equal sets and equivalent sets?

A = { 1,2,3,4,5,6 } and B = {1,2,3,4,5,6 } A and B above are EQUAL sets because ALL their elements are precisely the SAME. C = {a,b,c,d,e,f} and D = {3,4,5,6,7,8} C and D are EQUIVALENT sets because the NUMBER OF ELEMENTS in both the sets is the same i.e. 6.


Are all equal sets are equivalent sets why?

no,because if for example :setA "A,B,C" and setB "D,E,F" they do have the same number of elements ,but they don't have the same elements.


What is true about equivalent fraction?

Equivalent fractions are true when they show the same value: 2/4 = 1/2 = 4/8 all equal a half of the whole.


What is the definition of equal set?

Two sets are said to be equal when all the elements in the two sets are same


All infinite sets are not equal?

Absolutely not


What is true about all rectangles?

They have four sides, two sets of two parallel sides. These meet at right angles. The diagonals of a rectangle are of equal length.


Can two disjoint sets be equivalent?

Yes,Because not all disjoint no equivalent other have disjoint and equivalent


What quadrilateral has 2 sets of parallel sides of equal length?

A square has 3 sets of parallel sides of equal length AND all the angles are 90 degrees. A rhombus has 2 sets of parallel lines of equal length, but the angles aren't all 90 degrees.


When are two sets equal?

Two sets are said to be equal when all the elements present in the first set are there in the second set and vice-versa! It even applies for more than two sets. -19yoIndianLad


What are the equivalents sets?

Equivalent sets are sets that have the same cardinality. For finite sets it means that they have the same number of distinct elements.For infinite sets, though, things get a bit complicated. Then it is possible for a set to be equivalent to a proper subset of itself: for example, the set of all integers is equivalent to the set of all even integers. What is required is a one-to-one mapping, f(x) = 2x, from the first set to the second.