answersLogoWhite

0

we can consider all infinite sets as equivlent sets if we go by the the cantor set theory.for eg. on a number line if we consider the nos. between 0 and 1 as a set then they are infinite. similarly the nos. between 0 and 5 can also be considered infinite and if considered as a set then they can be considered as equivalent

User Avatar

Wiki User

10y ago

Still curious? Ask our experts.

Chat with our AI personalities

LaoLao
The path is yours to walk; I am only here to hold up a mirror.
Chat with Lao
ProfessorProfessor
I will give you the most educated answer.
Chat with Professor
JudyJudy
Simplicity is my specialty.
Chat with Judy

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Do all infinite sets are equivalent sets?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp