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we can consider all infinite sets as equivlent sets if we go by the the cantor set theory.for eg. on a number line if we consider the nos. between 0 and 1 as a set then they are infinite. similarly the nos. between 0 and 5 can also be considered infinite and if considered as a set then they can be considered as equivalent

Q: Do all infinite sets are equivalent sets?

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The number 15 belongs to an infinite amount of sets.

Yes.

Yes,Because not all disjoint no equivalent other have disjoint and equivalent

The cardinality of finite sets are the number of elements included in them however, union of infinite sets can be different as it includes the matching of two different sets one by one and finding a solution by matching the same amount of elements in those sets.

equivalent sets are sets having the same number of elements Example: a= {dog, cat, buffalo, horse, cow} b= { lion, tiger, zebra, wolf, puma} set a has 5 elements, so with set b which has 5 elements. so, sets a and b are equivalent sets.

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Equivalent sets are sets that have the same cardinality. For finite sets it means that they have the same number of distinct elements.For infinite sets, though, things get a bit complicated. Then it is possible for a set to be equivalent to a proper subset of itself: for example, the set of all integers is equivalent to the set of all even integers. What is required is a one-to-one mapping, f(x) = 2x, from the first set to the second.

Absolutely not

Closed sets and open sets, or finite and infinite sets.

There are finite sets, countably infinite sets and uncountably infinite sets.

I assume the question is meant to be about equivalent sets. Two sets are said to be equivalent if they have the same cardinality. For finite sets, it means that they must both have the same number of distinct elements. More generally, two sets are equivalent if (and only if) there exists a one-to-one mapping (bijection) from one set to the other. This definition applies to equivalence of infinite sets but does give rise to some counter-intuitive results. For example, the set of all integers is equivalent to its proper subset, the set of all odd integers. The mapping for all to evens is x-> 2x.

Yes. Equivalent means equal.

Sets are collection of distinct objects. In mathematics there are different types of sets like Finite set, Infinite set, Universal set, subset, equal set, equivalent set. Example of Finite set {1,2,3,4}. Infinite set:{1,2,3....}.

The number 15 belongs to an infinite amount of sets.

stars in the sky that's the some example of infinite sets

Yes.

No, because equivalent sets are sets that have the SAME cardinality but equal sets are sets that all their elements are precisely the SAME. example: A={a,b,c} and B={1,2,3} equivalent sets C={1,2,3} and D={1,2,3} equal sets

Closed sets and open sets, or finite and infinite sets.