Open question, at the present. No-one knows if pi is normal in any particular base, let alone if it's absolutely normal (normal in every base). It's considered highly difficult to prove normality for arbitrary Irrational Numbers (including pi, e, sqrt(2), zeta(3), etc.) The "easy" ones are the specially constructed irrational numbers such as Champernowne's constant.
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Pi is an irrational number with an infinite number of digits.The answer to this question depends upon whether pi is a "normal" irrational number or not. By "normal" in this context we mean that it has an infinite number of non repeating digits and there is an equal probability for the occurrence of any digit in the number. If this is true then in an infinite sequence, where any digit has an equal chance of appearing, then there must be an infinite number of that digit. So the answer is that there are an infinite number of zeroes in pi.If pi is not normal then the answer is unknown.
(pi)(1/pi)=1.4396 ...
the same as pi squared, which is 9.86960440109
The square root of pi times pi is simply pi. Because pi*pi=pi squared, the squared and the square root will cancel each other, leaving just pi.
Pi to the 5th power is approximately 306.019684785