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Q: Is the multiplicative inverse of any non zero rational number?

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The multiplicative inverse of a number (other than zero) is the number such that the product of the two is 1. Thus, the multiplicative inverse of x is 1/x.

Every non zero number has a multiplicative inverse, which is 1 divided by that number. This stands for both real and complex numbers. This can be proved by letting x=some non zero number. x*(1/x)=x/x=1, therefore the multiplicative inverse of x is 1/x.

Multiplicative Inverse of a NumberReciprocal The reciprocal of x is . In other words, a reciprocal is a fraction flipped upside down. Multiplicative inverse means the same thing as reciprocal. For example, the multiplicative inverse (reciprocal) of 12 is and the multiplicative inverse (reciprocal) of is . Note: The product of a number and its multiplicative inverse is 1. Observe that ·= 1. Multiplicative Inverse of a NumberReciprocal The reciprocal of x is . In other words, a reciprocal is a fraction flipped upside down. Multiplicative inverse means the same thing as reciprocal. For example, the multiplicative inverse (reciprocal) of 12 is and the multiplicative inverse (reciprocal) of is . Note: The product of a number and its multiplicative inverse is 1. Observe that ·= 1.

Zero.

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Yes, and for any non-zero rational x, the multiplicative inverse is 1/x.

The multiplicative inverse of a number is : 1/number i.e., one divided by the number. This doesn't apply to zero. Zero has no multiplicative inverse.

All rational numbers, with the exception of zero (0), have a multiplicative inverse. In fact, all real numbers (again, except for zero) have multiplicative inverses, though the inverses of irrational numbers are themselves irrational. Even imaginary numbers have multiplicative inverses (the multiplicative inverse of 5i is -0.2i - as you can see the inverse itself is also imaginary). Even complex numbers (the sum of an imaginary number and a real number) have multiplicative inverses (the inverse of [5i + 2] is [-5i/29 + 2/29] - similar to irrational and imaginary numbers, the inverse of a complex number is itself complex). The onlynumber, in any set of numbers, that does not have a multiplicative inverse is zero.

The multiplicative inverse of any non-zero integer, N is 1/N.

The multiplicative inverse of a number (other than zero) is the number such that the product of the two is 1. Thus, the multiplicative inverse of x is 1/x.

Always, unless the original number is zero. This does not have an inverse.

the multiplicative inverse of any number is 1 * * * * * That is NOT the multiplicative inverse. The multiplicative inverse of any non-zero number x, is the number y such that x*y = 1 = y*x y = x-1 or 1/x

The multiplicative inverse of a number is any number that will multiply by it to make zero. Here, the multiplicative inverse of -6 is -(1/6), or negative one sixth.

No.

Every non zero number has a multiplicative inverse, which is 1 divided by that number. This stands for both real and complex numbers. This can be proved by letting x=some non zero number. x*(1/x)=x/x=1, therefore the multiplicative inverse of x is 1/x.

No, zero does not. Multiplicative inverse, also known as reciprocal, is a number which multiplied by the original number gives 1 for the answer. Zero, multiplied by any numberequals zero. Infinity is not an actual number that you can multiply by. These are important concepts.

Zero does not have an opposite * * * * * While it is true that zero has no multiplicative opposite (or inverse), it certainly has an additive inverse, and that is also zero, since 0 + 0 = 0

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