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Two sets are equivalent if they have the same cardinality. For finite sets this means that they must have the same number of distinct elements. For infinite sets, equal cardinality means that there must be a one-to-one mapping from one set to the other.

This can lead to some counter-intuitive results. For example, the cardinality of the set of integers is the same as the cardinality of the set of even integers although the second set is a proper subset of the first. The relevant mapping is x -> 2x.

Q: What equivalent set?

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The definition of equivalent inequalities: inequalities that have the same set of solutions

equivalent

we can consider all infinite sets as equivlent sets if we go by the the cantor set theory.for eg. on a number line if we consider the nos. between 0 and 1 as a set then they are infinite. similarly the nos. between 0 and 5 can also be considered infinite and if considered as a set then they can be considered as equivalent

T, The set of integer geater than requal to negative five

equal sets with exactly the same elements and number of elements.equivalent sets with numbers of elements

Related questions

in a set if two elements or numbers are equal then it is known as equivalent set

Two sets are said to be the equivalent if a (1-1)correspondence can be established between them.If set A is equivalent to set B,then we write A is (1-1)correspondence to set B and It shows the quantities of elements.

If M = {235} all sets that have only 1 element are equivalent to it

equal sets

Yes, they are.

When two set have the same number of cardinately

Two sets are said to be equivalent if the elements of each set can be put into a one-to-one relationship with the elements of the other set.

The definition of equivalent inequalities: inequalities that have the same set of solutions

Equivalent sets are sets with exactly the same number of elements.

Two sets are equal if they have the same elements. Two sets are equivalent if there is a bijection from one set to the other. that is, each element of one set can be mapped, one-to-one, onto elements of the second set.

yes it is

This problem can be modeled and tested quite easily. Set A can be [X,Y], subset B [X,Y], and subset A [X,Y]. Therefore A and B are equivalent.