0
Two sets are equivalent if they have the same cardinality. For finite sets this means that they must have the same number of distinct elements. For infinite sets, equal cardinality means that there must be a one-to-one mapping from one set to the other.
This can lead to some counter-intuitive results. For example, the cardinality of the set of integers is the same as the cardinality of the set of even integers although the second set is a proper subset of the first. The relevant mapping is x -> 2x.
Still curious? Ask our experts.
Chat with our AI personalities
Taiga
Steve
BeauAdd your answer:
Earn +20 pts
What is the definition of equivalent inequalities?
The definition of equivalent inequalities: inequalities that have the same set of solutions
When two fraction name the same part of a region or a set they are called?
equivalent
Do all infinite sets are equivalent sets?
we can consider all infinite sets as equivlent sets if we go by the the cantor set theory.for eg. on a number line if we consider the nos. between 0 and 1 as a set then they are infinite. similarly the nos. between 0 and 5 can also be considered infinite and if considered as a set then they can be considered as equivalent
If two sets are equal are they necessarily equivalent?
T, The set of integer geater than requal to negative five
What is an arithmetical multiplier for converting a quantity expressed in one set of units into an equivalent expressed into another?
It is called a conversion factor.
