0
Still curious? Ask our experts.
Chat with our AI personalities
Rene
Fran
CoachAdd your answer:
Earn +20 pts
Is the inverse of an exponential function the quadratic function?
No. The inverse of an exponential function is a logarithmic function.
Why is x squared a inverse function?
X squared is not an inverse function; it is a quadratic function.
Example of a function that has no inverse function?
y = sin x is such a function. It has an inverse, of course; but the inverse, sin-1, strictly speaking, is not a function.Example: Given that x = pi/6, y must equal 0.5. However, given that y = 0.5, x can equal pi/6, 5 pi/6, 13 pi/6, 17 pi/6, or an infinity of values, both positive and negative.For y to be a function of x, and x to be, also, a function of y, there must be exactly one value of y that answers to a given value of x, and vice-versa. Then, and only then, is each function the inverse of the other.
What is the inverse of y equals x?
The inverse of the function y = x is denoted as y = x. The inverse function essentially swaps the roles of x and y, so the inverse of y = x is x = y. In other words, the inverse function of y = x is the function x = y.
Does the greatest integer function have an inverse function?
Inverse of a function exists only if it is a Bijection. Bijection=Injection(one to one)+surjection (onto) function.
