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The original function's RANGE becomes the inverse function's domain.

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Q: If an inverse function undoes the work of the original function the original function's becomes the inverse function's domain?

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range TPate

The inverse of the inverse is the original function, so that the product of the two functions is equivalent to the identity function on the appropriate domain. The domain of a function is the range of the inverse function. The range of a function is the domain of the inverse function.

No.Some functions have no inverse.

In order for a fourth degree function to have an inverse function, its domain must be restricted. Otherwise the inverse function will not pass the vertical-line test.Ex.f(x) = x^4 (x>0), the original functionf-1(x) = x ^ (1/4), the inverse

the output is halved

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Range

range TPate

The inverse of the inverse is the original function, so that the product of the two functions is equivalent to the identity function on the appropriate domain. The domain of a function is the range of the inverse function. The range of a function is the domain of the inverse function.

When graphing functions, an inverse function will be symmetric to the original function about the line y = x. Since a constant function is simply a straight, horizontal line, its inverse would be a straight, vertical line. However, a vertical line is not a function. Therefore, constant functions do not have inverse functions. Another way of figuring this question can be achieved using the horizontal line test. Look at your original function on a graph. If any horizontal line intersects the graph of the original function more than once, the original function does not have an inverse. The constant function is a horizontal line. Under the assumptions of the horizontal line test, a horizontal line infinitely will cross the original function. Thus, the constant function does not have an inverse function.

An inverse is NOT called a circular function. Only inverse functions that are circular functions are called circular functions for obvious reasons.

No.Some functions have no inverse.

Maybe; the range of the original function is given, correct? If so, then calculate the range of the inverse function by using the original functions range in the original function. Those calculated extreme values are the range of the inverse function. Suppose: f(x) = x^3, with range of -3 to +3. f(-3) = -27 f(3) = 27. Let the inverse function of f(x) = g(y); therefore g(y) = y^(1/3). The range of f(y) is -27 to 27. If true, then f(x) = f(g(y)) = f(y^(1/3)) = (y^(1/3))^3 = y g(y) = g(f(x)) = g(x^3) = (x^3)^3 = x Try by substituting the ranges into the equations, if the proofs hold, then the answer is true for the function and the range that you are testing. Sometimes, however, it can be false. Look at a transcendental function.

inverse function

If f(x)=y, then the inverse function solves for y when x=f(y). You may have to restrict the domain for the inverse function to be a function. Use this concept when finding the inverse of hyperbolic functions.

The "next" level depends on what level you are starting from!

Q=-200+50P inverse supply function

The logarithm function. If you specifically mean the function ex, the inverse function is the natural logarithm. However, functions with bases other than "e" might also be called exponential functions.