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reflexive property of congruence
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Is intersection of two topologies on X a topology on X?
A topology is a set of elements or subsets that follows these properties:∅ and X belongs to the setAny union of the subsets belongs to the set.Any intersection of the subsets belongs to the set.Yes, any intersection of two topologies on X is always a topology on X. Consider this example:Let X = {1,2,3}, T = {∅, {1},{2},{1,2},X} and S = {∅, {1}, {3}, {1,3},X}Then, S ∩ T = {∅, X, {1}}To show that S ∩ T is a topology, we need to prove these properties:∅ and X belongs to the setAny union of the subsets belongs to the set.Any intersection of the subsets belongs to the set.Step 1: Prove the first property is followedSince the empty set and X belongs to S ∩ T, the first property is followed. That is obvious. ;)Step 2: Prove the second property is followedSelect any union of any pair of subsets. You should see that this property is also satisfied. How?∅ U X = X ∈ S ∩ T∅ U {1} = {1} ∈ S ∩ T{1} U X = X ∈ S ∩ TStep 3: Prove the third property is followedAny intersection of the subsets belong to the set obviously. See below:∅ ∩ X = ∅ ∈ S ∩ T∅ ∩ {1} = ∅ ∈ S ∩ T{1} ∩ X = {1} ∈ S ∩ TSo the intersection of two topologies on X is a topology.
what- If you are given or can prove that two triangles are congruent, then you may use CPCTC to prove that the angles or sides are?
congruent
What property of multiplication do you use to rename fractions?
Identity property of multiplication
P-q and q-p are logically equivalent prove?
p --> q and q --> p are not equivalent p --> q and q --> (not)p are equivalent The truth table shows this. pq p --> q q -->(not)p f f t t f t t t t f f f t t t t
What property can you use to find the missing number for 10x equals 0?
You would use the Property Of Zero
which property can you use to prove that ME is congruent to itself?
reflexive property of congruence
What Nikki is going to use SSS to prove that PQR SQR.?
prove that QR = QR by the reflexive property.
In California could you get your property back if you use a Quitclaim deed to convey ownership?
Not unless you can prove that the quitclaim deed was executed based on fraud committed by the parties the property was conveyed to.
Is it possible to prove one pair of triangles congruent and then use their congruent corresponding parts to prove another pair congruent?
If I understand the question correctly, the answer is yes. Thanks to the transitive property of congruence.
How do you prove that a joint Hindu family undivided property is ancestor property?
one has to prove the nucleus of joint family and creation of properties during jointness of hindu family
Who has right to quiet title?
The plaintiff must be the person(s) who has title to the property and can prove that their claim is the strongest as opposed to that of the adverse party.The plaintiff must be the person(s) who has title to the property and can prove that their claim is the strongest as opposed to that of the adverse party.The plaintiff must be the person(s) who has title to the property and can prove that their claim is the strongest as opposed to that of the adverse party.The plaintiff must be the person(s) who has title to the property and can prove that their claim is the strongest as opposed to that of the adverse party.
What is a math problem for substitution property?
Which property is demonstrated below? If t=s then s=t
Neighbor built garage on my property what options do I have?
Get a survey and prove it is indeed your property then seek legal counsel.
Can bus inspectors keep your bus pass id in Birmingham UK or is that theft?
If they suspect (or can prove) you're using it fraudulently - or it has expired - then, yes they can ! The bus pass is NEVER you're property - Somewhere on the pass, it will have text similar to... "This pass remains the property of the bus company." If you can prove you're legally entitled to use the pass - you can reclaim it at the office of the bus company, so long as you can prove your identity.
Can you get ownership of your driveway easement by adverse possession in New York if the owners of the property have not used or maintained it for thirty years?
No. You have the right of use by permission of the property owner. One of the elements necessary to prove adverse possession is that you use the property in a way hostile to its owner, or, openly and without permission. You should make an offer to purchase the affected property rather than trying to take what is not yours.
Why are you being charged with receiving stolen property with no property?
Not enough information to answer the question. MY GUESS would be that law enforcement can PROVE that you DID once have the stolen property in your possession.
Can i claim to own my property from my landlord?
Unless you have purchased the property from your landlord as opposed to continuing to rent it, you have no right to claim to own the property. To prove ownership of the property, you would require the deed.
