It is because 186426 = 3*62142 and 186426 = 9*20714.
Because 186426 is a multiple of both 3 and 9.
No cuz why In the fvck is this ⁉️⁉️⁉️⁉️⁉️
they are both divisible by 6 and 9
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No. 426 is only divisible by: 1, 2, 3, 6, 71, 142, 213, 426.
No. But it is divisible by: 1 2 3 6 71 142 213 and 426.
Any number that is divisible by both 2 and 3 is divisible by 6.
Since 5232 is divisible by both 2 and 3, it is divisible by 6.A number must be divisible by both 2 and 3 to be divisible by 6.The number 5232 is even, so it is divisible by 2.If you add the individual digits in the number (5+2+3+2=12) you get a number that is divisible by 3, meaning the original number (5232) is also divisible by 3.
It is not divisible by 6. Note:If a number id divisible by 6 then it must be divisible by both 2 and 3.The above number is not divisible by 2 and 3 either.
Yes as both divisible by 3 so 15/426 = 5/142
No. 426 is only divisible by: 1, 2, 3, 6, 71, 142, 213, 426.
No. But it is divisible by: 1 2 3 6 71 142 213 and 426.
Yes.
No, 426 is not a prime number. It is divisible by 2, 3, 6, 9, 142, and 213.
No,because 45 is not divisible by both 2 and 3. In order for a number to be divisible by 6 it has to be divisible by both 2 and 3.
They are both divisible by 1 and 3
Any number that is divisible by both 2 and 3 is divisible by 6.
1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18, 71, 142, 213, 426, 639, 1278
2 yes, 3 no.
9 is divisible by both 3 and 9
426-3 = 423