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That simply means that some energy is lost, due to friction and other causes.
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What would cause the calorimeter efficiency to be less than 100 percent?
why is the efficiency of a calorimeter less than 100%
Why is it that efficiency of a machine is less than 1?
The efficiency is always less than one because some of the energy is always useless for what you want. Most wasted energy eventually turns into heat. therefore the efficiency is like a percentage with 1 being 100% a device can't be 100% efficient as some energy is wasted. To work out the efficiency of a device you need to do the total useful energy produced divided by the total energy that is inputted into the device
Is it possible for a first or second class lever to have a mechanical advantage less than one or for a third class lever to have a mechanical advantage greater than one?
Second class lever. . . . Always greater than 1 . Third class lever . . . . . Always less than 1 . First class lever . . . . . Can be greater than 1 or less than 1 depending on position of fulcrum.
Why is efficiency less than 1?
The Law of Conservation of Energy states that energy can't be created or destroyed. Thus, efficiency is 1 (i.e., 100%) if there is a perfect energy conversion. Since this is usually not the case, and some energy is wasted, the efficiency of most energy conversions is less than 100% (or less than a factor of 1).
Why is the efficiency of a machine less than 1?
An efficiency factor of 1 (or 100% efficiency) is not possible due to losses that cannot be reduced to zero. These losses take the form of friction, heat loss etc.
Why a normal machine could not have the mechanical efficiency of 100?
Because there is always going to be friction, the efficiency of any machine will always be less then 100 percent.
What is the relationship between ideal mechanical advantage and velocity ratio?
The ratio of Mechanical Advantage and Velocity Ratio is Efficiency. That is to say the ratio of M.A. and V.R. is constant.
Explain why the amount of work that a machine does is less than the amount put into the machine?
Output work is always less than input work.
What would cause the calorimeter efficiency to be less than 100 percent?
why is the efficiency of a calorimeter less than 100%
The efficiency of an actual machine is always less than what percent?
It is always less than 100% Theoretical machines can have efficiencies of 100% but in practice there is always some energy loss Efficiencies of more than 100% are not allowed by the laws of thermodynamics!
What can be done to increase the efficiency of the machine?
Mechanical Efficiency is the ratio of Actual mechanical advantage to ideal mechanical advantage.Efficiency will be maximum when Actual mechanical advantage equals that of ideal.But practically not possible.Actual mechanical advantage will be less due to friction,heat,deflection etc.avoiding these loses will increase the machine efficiency.
Levers have a greater mechanical efficiency that other simple machines because?
They have to overcome less friction
Why can't mechanical efficiency be over 100 percent?
The mechanical efficiency can't be over 100% because a type of energy is always lost. For example, it can be lost as heat, sound or even light. When you use a light bulb, it produces light, but heat is lost in the process. See what I mean! In most cases, heat is lost due to friction. the work put out by a machine is always less than the work put into a machine to do the work. Therefore no machine is 100% efficient. As well.... Efficiency is (power out/power in) x 100. To get an efficiency of *more* than 100%, the machine must give more power out than is put in. No machine has ever been demonstrated that does this, and until someone can show this result (power out *more* than power in), we know that any machine has an efficiency less than 100%.
What is efficiency always less than?
It is always less than 1 or 100%.It is always less than 1 or 100%.It is always less than 1 or 100%.It is always less than 1 or 100%.
What would happen to a pulley system if the load were increased?
Ideal mechanical advantage is the mechanical advantage when there is no friction. It is the mechanical advantage when the efficiency of the pullefy system is 100%. It is a constant for that system of pulleys. Therfore it is not affected by increasing or decreasing the load. But actual mechanical advantage will be less than this ideal mechanical advantage due to friction. In other words the efficiency will be less than 100 %. If the efficiency is 80%, it implies 20% is wasted due to friction while lifting a load. If we increase the load the friction also increases and hence the efficiency will decrease with the load.
Why the efficiency of induction motor is less than that of transformer?
Because, the losses of IM is more due to the contribution of friction losses at shaft bearings and wind age losses in rotor air gap, this reduces the efficiency of the equipment, Since transforms is a static equipment zero mechanical loss so efficiency of the equipments in high .
If the output work of a simple machine is than the input work the machine is said to have less than 100 percent efficiency?
input
