There are several reasons that the question cannot have a proper answer. The first is that children's gender are not independent events. It is, therefore, wrong to multiply probabilities. Second, the probability of a girl is not 1/2. Current statistics show that it is approx 0.48.
However, if you wish to ignore these relevant facts, the [incorrect] answer that is expected is 1/4.
The probably of four girls in a family with four children is 1/16. I got this answer because: Probability of a girl is 1/2 and to get all girls you would multiply it by 1/2 for the rest of the girls.
Assuming that boys and girls are equally likely, it is 11/16.
The answer depends on whether the children are picked at random. If they were selected from inside a girls' school the probability should be quite close to 0. Likewise, if the children were picked inside a boys' school. If six children are picked at random from a large group of children with an equal number of boys and girls, then the answer is 6C2*(1/2)6 = 15/32 = 0.47, approx.
4/6=2/4 n(s)=3 6
Going by the assumption that the probability of a child being a girl is 1/2, and that the events are independent, then the probabilities of different numbers of girls are as follows: P(0 girls) = 1/2 ^ 4 = 1/16 P(1 girl) = 4 * (1/2) * (1/2 ^ 3) = 1/4 P(2 girls) = 6 * (1/2 ^ 2) * (1/2 ^ 2) = 3/8 P(3 girls) = 4 * (1/2 ^ 3) * (1/2) = 1/4 P(4 girls) = 1/2 ^ 4 = 1/16 Therefore the probability of at least 2 girls = 3/8 + 1/4 + 1/16 = 11/16
The probability is1 - [Prob(No children) + Prob(1 child, a girl) + Prob(2 children, both girls) + Prob(3 children, all girls) + ...]Not all relevant information is readily available.
The probably of four girls in a family with four children is 1/16. I got this answer because: Probability of a girl is 1/2 and to get all girls you would multiply it by 1/2 for the rest of the girls.
It is 3/8.
We would need to know the number of children in the family to answer this question. For instance, the probability of having no girls in a family of two children would be 1/4 theoretically. In general it is 2-n where n is the number of children.
Assuming that boys and girls are equally likely, it is 11/16.
For any particular pair of parents, the gender of their children is not 1/2 nor are the genders independent. However, if you assume that they are, and that the probability of either gender is 0.2, the probability tat 4 out of 8 are girls is 8C4*(1/2)8 = 70/256 = 0.27 approx.
There is no simple answer to the question because the children's genders are not independent events. They depend on the parents' ages and their genes. However, if you assume that they are independent events then, given that the probability of a girl is approx 0.48, the probability of 2 or more girls is 0.6617.
Assuming that children of either gender are equally likely, the answer is (1/2)3 = 1/8
The answer depends on whether the children are picked at random. If they were selected from inside a girls' school the probability should be quite close to 0. Likewise, if the children were picked inside a boys' school. If six children are picked at random from a large group of children with an equal number of boys and girls, then the answer is 6C2*(1/2)6 = 15/32 = 0.47, approx.
4/6=2/4 n(s)=3 6
The probability is 2 - 6
The probability of a female is approx 0.4831 across the world. If you assume (rather dubious) that the genders of children in a family are independent then the probability is approx 0.3012In a family of 5, the probability of 3 girls and 2 boys is5C3*(0.4831)3*(0.5169)2 = 0.3012