Since Luis can only pass or fail his test, and we know that the probability of all possible outcomes is 1, we therefore see that P(Pass) + P(Fail) = 1
*where P(X) = the probability of event X*
So if P(Pass) = .33;
then P(Fail) = 1 - P(Pass)
= 1 - .33
= .66 (or 66% chance that Luis will fail)
P(i Fail the Quiz| i Studied hard) VIA APEX
The probability of drawing a queen or king, in a single randomly drawn card, is 2/13. The probability of drawing one when you draw 45 cards without replacement is 1. The probability of choosing has nothing t do with the probability of drawing the card. I can choose a king but fail to find one!
odds"The odds against an event is a ratio of the probability that the event will fail to occur (failure) to the probability that the event will occur (success). To find odds you must first know or determine the probability of success and the probability of failure.Odds against event = P(event fails to occur)/P(event occurs) = P(failure)/P(success)The odds in favor of an event are expressed as a ratio of the probability that the event will occur to the probability that the event will fail to occur.Odds in favor of event = P(event occurs)/P(event fails to occur) = P(success)/P(failure)"Allen R. Angel, Christine D. Abbott, Dennis C. Runde. A Survey of Mathematics with Applications. Pearson Custom Publishing 2009. Pages 286-288.
I'm going to assume you're looking for the probability of getting three heads out of three coin spins and that you're using a fair coin. For coin spins, theoretical probability is very simple. The probability of getting three heads in a row is 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/8. This means that if you tossed a coin three times, you'd expect to see three heads once every 8 trials. For experimental probability you need to define clear trials, for this experiment you can't just spin a coin over and over and count the number of times you see three heads in a row, for example, if you threw the following: H T H H T T H H H H H T T H T T T you have three cases where you have three heads in a row, but they all overlap so these are not independent trials and cannot be compared to the theoretical result. When conducting your experiment, you know that if you get a T in your trial, it doesn't matter what comes after, that trial has already failed to get three heads in a row. The trial is deemed a success if you get three heads in a row, naturally. As a result, if you threw the above sequence, you would to determine your experimental probability in the following way: H T fail H H T fail T fail H H H success H H T fail T fail H T fail T fail T fail In this example we have 8 trials and one success, therefore the experimental probability is 1/8. The sample variance (look it up), however is also 1/8, meaning that all you really know is that the experimental probability could be anywhere between 0 and 1/4. The only way to get the variance down (and therefore reduce your confidence interval) is to perform more and more trials. It's unlikely for the theoretical probability and experimental probability to be EXACTLY the same but the more trials you do, the more the experimental probability will converge on the theoretical probability.
This question cannot be answered for two reasons.The questions states that "... the probability of each failing [is] 2 ...". That is not possible since probabilities can never be greater than 1.The question does not specify what even the probability is required for: the guidance system failing or not failing!
P(i Fail the Quiz| i Studied hard) VIA APEX
Assuming the alternator's failures are unrelated, the probability of both failing is the product of the individual probability, or 0.022, or 0.0004. The duration of the flight does not matter.
If the probability of an event is 0.02, then the probability of two such events occurring is 0.022 or 0.0004.
The probability of drawing a queen or king, in a single randomly drawn card, is 2/13. The probability of drawing one when you draw 45 cards without replacement is 1. The probability of choosing has nothing t do with the probability of drawing the card. I can choose a king but fail to find one!
If the probability that no component fails on turn-on is 0.35, then the probability that none will fail after 2, 3, and 4 turn-on's is 0.1225, 0.042875, and 0.015, respectively. This is 0.35 to the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th powers, etc. As time goes on, the probability of no failure will approach zero, and the probability of failure will approach 1, but the probability of no failure or some failure will never become exactly 0 or 1.
Unfortunately, given the limited information in your question, all that can be said with certainty is that the probability is somewhere between 0 and 1.
Probability of pass on second attempt is 40% x 80% = 32%
odds"The odds against an event is a ratio of the probability that the event will fail to occur (failure) to the probability that the event will occur (success). To find odds you must first know or determine the probability of success and the probability of failure.Odds against event = P(event fails to occur)/P(event occurs) = P(failure)/P(success)The odds in favor of an event are expressed as a ratio of the probability that the event will occur to the probability that the event will fail to occur.Odds in favor of event = P(event occurs)/P(event fails to occur) = P(success)/P(failure)"Allen R. Angel, Christine D. Abbott, Dennis C. Runde. A Survey of Mathematics with Applications. Pearson Custom Publishing 2009. Pages 286-288.
Assuming without any justification, that X and Y failing are independent events, then the probability that both X and Y fail within a 5-year period is approx 15%.
I'm going to assume you're looking for the probability of getting three heads out of three coin spins and that you're using a fair coin. For coin spins, theoretical probability is very simple. The probability of getting three heads in a row is 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/8. This means that if you tossed a coin three times, you'd expect to see three heads once every 8 trials. For experimental probability you need to define clear trials, for this experiment you can't just spin a coin over and over and count the number of times you see three heads in a row, for example, if you threw the following: H T H H T T H H H H H T T H T T T you have three cases where you have three heads in a row, but they all overlap so these are not independent trials and cannot be compared to the theoretical result. When conducting your experiment, you know that if you get a T in your trial, it doesn't matter what comes after, that trial has already failed to get three heads in a row. The trial is deemed a success if you get three heads in a row, naturally. As a result, if you threw the above sequence, you would to determine your experimental probability in the following way: H T fail H H T fail T fail H H H success H H T fail T fail H T fail T fail T fail In this example we have 8 trials and one success, therefore the experimental probability is 1/8. The sample variance (look it up), however is also 1/8, meaning that all you really know is that the experimental probability could be anywhere between 0 and 1/4. The only way to get the variance down (and therefore reduce your confidence interval) is to perform more and more trials. It's unlikely for the theoretical probability and experimental probability to be EXACTLY the same but the more trials you do, the more the experimental probability will converge on the theoretical probability.
Unfortunately, there are no statistics available for how many persons fail their first DMV driving test following successful completion of a DMV driver's education course. The DMV of various states do not computate or keep these kinds of statistics.
This question cannot be answered for two reasons.The questions states that "... the probability of each failing [is] 2 ...". That is not possible since probabilities can never be greater than 1.The question does not specify what even the probability is required for: the guidance system failing or not failing!