0
What else can I help you with?
Is The total area under the curve of any normal distribution is 1.0?
yes because 1 = 100% so the entire area under the curve is 100%
Is in the normal distribution the total area beneath the curve represent the probability for all possible outcomes for a given event?
Yes. The total area under any probability distribution curve is always the probability of all possible outcomes - which is 1.
What is the area under normal distribution curve between z1.50 and z2.50?
Approx 0.0606
What is the area under the standard normal distribution curve between z1.50 and z2.50?
~0.0606
Is the total shape of a bell curve greater than 1?
It is assumed that by "shape" you mean "area". The quick answer is yes, probably. The "Bell curve" is called a Gaussian function (see related link). The area under a Gaussian is not necessarily 1; it can be anything. However, if you're talking about probability, where the probability distribution is in the same of a Gaussian, then the area under the curve must be exactly 1. This isn't however, because it is a bell curve, but because it's a probability distribution. The area under any probability distribution must always be exactly 1, or it isn't a valid distribution. The proper term for the total area under any curve f(x) is the integral from negative infinity to infinity of f(x) dx
What is the area under a curve with mu equals 15 and sigma equals 2?
If the question is to do with a probability distribution curve, the answer is ONE - whatever the values of mu and sigma. The area under the curve of any probability distribution curve is 1.
What does area have to do with probability?
A normalized probability distribution curve has an area under the curve of 1.Note: I said "normalized", not "normal". Do not confuse the terms.
Is The total area under the curve of any normal distribution is 1.0?
yes because 1 = 100% so the entire area under the curve is 100%
If the tails of the normal distribution curve are infinitely long. Is it True or False that the total area under the curve is also infinite?
False. A normalized distribution curve (do not confuse normalized with normal), by definition, has an area under the curve of exactly 1. That is because the probability of all possible events is also always exactly 1. The shape of the curve does not matter.
What does the area underneath a velocity-time curve represent?
Mathematically, the area underneath the graph of a curve is the value you get by integrating that curve. From classical mechanics, one knows that the integral of an object's velocity with respect to time gives you that object's position as a function of time. Thus, the area underneath the velocity time graph from one point in time to another is the change in position of that object between those two times or, it's distance traveled.
Is in the normal distribution the total area beneath the curve represent the probability for all possible outcomes for a given event?
Yes. The total area under any probability distribution curve is always the probability of all possible outcomes - which is 1.
What is the area under the standard normal distribution curve between z1.50 and z2.50?
~0.0606
What is the area under the standard normal distribution curve between z0.75 and z1.89?
0.1972
What is the area under normal distribution curve between z1.50 and z2.50?
Approx 0.0606
How do the width and height of a normal distribution curve?
By standard practice, the normal distribution curve should be normalized so that the area under the curve is 1. This results in a height, at the mean, of about 0.4, i.e. the probability of a sample value being equal to the mean is 40 percent. The width of the normal distribution curve is infinite, as the tails are asymptotic to the X axis. It is easier to understand that the +/- one sigma area is 68.2 percent, the +/- two sigma area is 95.4 percent, and the +/- three sigma area is 99.6 percent.
Is the total shape of a bell curve greater than 1?
It is assumed that by "shape" you mean "area". The quick answer is yes, probably. The "Bell curve" is called a Gaussian function (see related link). The area under a Gaussian is not necessarily 1; it can be anything. However, if you're talking about probability, where the probability distribution is in the same of a Gaussian, then the area under the curve must be exactly 1. This isn't however, because it is a bell curve, but because it's a probability distribution. The area under any probability distribution must always be exactly 1, or it isn't a valid distribution. The proper term for the total area under any curve f(x) is the integral from negative infinity to infinity of f(x) dx
What is the area under the normal distribution curve to the right of z that equals 3.24?
0.0006 (approx).
