Q: What is the area under normal distribution curve between z1.50 and z2.50?

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~0.0606

The total area under a normal distribution is not infinite. The total area under a normal distribution is a continuous value between any 2 given values. The function of a normal distribution is actually defined such that it must have a fixed value. For the "standard normal distribution" where μ=0 and σ=1, the area under the curve is equal to 1.

0.4846

What is the area under the normal curve between z=0.0 and z=1.79?

the standard normal curve 2

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~0.0606

0.1972

The total area under a normal distribution is not infinite. The total area under a normal distribution is a continuous value between any 2 given values. The function of a normal distribution is actually defined such that it must have a fixed value. For the "standard normal distribution" where μ=0 and σ=1, the area under the curve is equal to 1.

0.4846

2.16

What is the area under the normal curve between z=0.0 and z=1.79?

Look in any standard normal distribution table; one is given in the related link. Find the area for 2.43 and 1.52; then take the area for 2.43 and subtract the area for 1.52 and that will be the answer. Therefore, .9925 - .9357 = .0568 = area under the normal distribution curve between z equals 1.52 and z equals 2.43.

the standard normal curve 2

The area under a normal distribution is one since, by definition, the sum of any series of probabilities is one and, therefore, the integral (or area under the curve) of any probability distribution from negative infinity to infinity is one. However, if you take an interval of a normal distribution, its area can be anywhere between 0 and 1.

False. A normalized distribution curve (do not confuse normalized with normal), by definition, has an area under the curve of exactly 1. That is because the probability of all possible events is also always exactly 1. The shape of the curve does not matter.

The Normal curve is a graph of the probability density function of the standard normal distribution and, as is the case with any continuous random variable (RV), the probability that the RV takes a value in a given range is given by the integral of the function between the two limits. In other words, it is the area under the curve between those two values.

yes because 1 = 100% so the entire area under the curve is 100%