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Approx 0.0606

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โˆ™ 2016-02-21 13:41:08
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Q: What is the area under normal distribution curve between z1.50 and z2.50?
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Related questions

What is the area under the standard normal distribution curve between z1.50 and z2.50?

~0.0606


What is the area under the standard normal distribution curve between z0.75 and z1.89?

0.1972


The total area under a normal distribution is infinite?

The total area under a normal distribution is not infinite. The total area under a normal distribution is a continuous value between any 2 given values. The function of a normal distribution is actually defined such that it must have a fixed value. For the "standard normal distribution" where μ=0 and σ=1, the area under the curve is equal to 1.


What is the area under standard normal distribution curve between z equals 0 and z equals 2.16?

0.4846


What is the area under standard normal distribution curve between z equals 0 and z equals -2.16?

2.16


What is the area under the normal curve between Z0.0 and Z1.79?

What is the area under the normal curve between z=0.0 and z=1.79?


What is the area under the standard normal curve?

the standard normal curve 2


How do you find the area of a normal distribution?

The area under a normal distribution is one since, by definition, the sum of any series of probabilities is one and, therefore, the integral (or area under the curve) of any probability distribution from negative infinity to infinity is one. However, if you take an interval of a normal distribution, its area can be anywhere between 0 and 1.


What is the area under the normal distribution curve to the right of z that equals 3.24?

0.0006 (approx).


Find the area under the normal distribution curve between z equals 1.23 and z equals 1.90?

Look in any standard normal distribution table; one is given in the related link. Find the area for 2.43 and 1.52; then take the area for 2.43 and subtract the area for 1.52 and that will be the answer. Therefore, .9925 - .9357 = .0568 = area under the normal distribution curve between z equals 1.52 and z equals 2.43.


Is The total area under the curve of any normal distribution is 1.0?

yes because 1 = 100% so the entire area under the curve is 100%


If the tails of the normal distribution curve are infinitely long. Is it True or False that the total area under the curve is also infinite?

False. A normalized distribution curve (do not confuse normalized with normal), by definition, has an area under the curve of exactly 1. That is because the probability of all possible events is also always exactly 1. The shape of the curve does not matter.

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