1/3.
Indeed, there were four answers you had to choose from. If one is eliminated as you know it is definitely wrong, then you are left with three possible answers, one of which is correct. Thus you have 1 correct answer out of three possible, and the probability to randomly pick the correct one is 1 out of 3, or 1/3 or 33.333 %
The remaining 1 over 3 is the probability of losing.
It depends on the events. The answer is 0.5*(Total number of events - number of events with probability = 0.5) That is, discount all events such that their probability (and that of their complement) is exactly a half. Then half the remaining events will have probabilities that are greater than their complement's.
Not necessarily. The probability of a complementary event with probability p is 1-p. Two mutually exclusive events, however, don't necessarily add up to a probability of 1. For example, the probability of drawing a King from a standard deck of cards is 1 in 13, which the complementary probability of not drawing a King is 12 in 13. The probability, however, of drawing a Heart is 1 in 4, while the probability of drawing a Club is also 1 in 4. That leaves Diamonds and Spades, which account for the remaining probability of 2 in 4.
If 2 cards are selected from a standard deck of 52 cards without replacement, in order to find the probability that both are the same suit, start with the first card...The probability that the first card is any suit is 52 in 52, or 1.Now, consider the second card. There are 12 cards remaining in the same suit, and 39 cards remaining in the other three suits...The probability that the second card is the same suit as the first card is 12 in 51, or 4 in 17, or 0.235.The probability of both events occurring is the product of those two probabilities. That is still 4 in 17, or 0.235.
Assume the coin is fair, so there are equal amount of probabilities for the choices.There are two possible choices for a flip of a fair coin - either a head or a tail. The probability of getting a head is ½. Similarly, the probability of getting a tail is ½.Use Binomial to work out this problem. You should get:(5 choose 4)(½)4(½).(5 choose 4) indicates the total number of ways to obtain 4 tails in 5 flips.(½)4 indicates the probability of obtaining 4 tails.(½) indicates the probability of obtaining the remaining number of head.Therefore, the probability is 5/32.
The probability is that the remaining two outcomes are 1 H and 1 T. The probability of that is 2/4 or 50%The probability is that the remaining two outcomes are 1 H and 1 T. The probability of that is 2/4 or 50%The probability is that the remaining two outcomes are 1 H and 1 T. The probability of that is 2/4 or 50%The probability is that the remaining two outcomes are 1 H and 1 T. The probability of that is 2/4 or 50%
The remaining 1 over 3 is the probability of losing.
The aim of life is to spell correctly... those who write "lofe" die. Yes that's right, I'm gonna die as a result of answering this question. I hope you can live the remaining amount of time you have left without feeling too bad about it.
None, as of the time of answering (21 June 2017).
It depends on the events. The answer is 0.5*(Total number of events - number of events with probability = 0.5) That is, discount all events such that their probability (and that of their complement) is exactly a half. Then half the remaining events will have probabilities that are greater than their complement's.
The Great Fire of London occurred Which in all probability help to wipe out the remaining infestations of the plague.
The probability is very close to 1. It is not likely to disappear, not is it likely to remain dormant for the remaining 4 billion years (approx) that the earth is expected to continue in existence.
The probability of drawing a king on the first draw is 4/52 = 1/13. The probability that the next card is one of the 3 remaining kings is 3/51 = 1/17. The probability of both events is (1/13)*(1/17) = 1/221
The same probability of rolling a 6 on any roll, you have 1 sixth of a chance or 1 out of 6 or 1/6. The 8th roll is independent from all remaining rolls.
Not necessarily. The probability of a complementary event with probability p is 1-p. Two mutually exclusive events, however, don't necessarily add up to a probability of 1. For example, the probability of drawing a King from a standard deck of cards is 1 in 13, which the complementary probability of not drawing a King is 12 in 13. The probability, however, of drawing a Heart is 1 in 4, while the probability of drawing a Club is also 1 in 4. That leaves Diamonds and Spades, which account for the remaining probability of 2 in 4.
The probability of drawing one black seven from a standard deck of cards is 2/52 = 1/26. The probability of drawing the other black seven from the remaining 51 cards is 1/51. Therefore the probability of drawing both black sevens from a deck of cards = 1/26 x 1/51 = 1/1326 ~ 0.000754 (3sf).
If 2 cards are selected from a standard deck of 52 cards without replacement, in order to find the probability that both are the same suit, start with the first card...The probability that the first card is any suit is 52 in 52, or 1.Now, consider the second card. There are 12 cards remaining in the same suit, and 39 cards remaining in the other three suits...The probability that the second card is the same suit as the first card is 12 in 51, or 4 in 17, or 0.235.The probability of both events occurring is the product of those two probabilities. That is still 4 in 17, or 0.235.