Yes, 67 times 6 equals 402.
402 is not the first multiple of 3. The first multiple of any number is itself. 402 is 134 times 3.
67
2 x 3 x 67 = 402 2 x 201 = 402 3 x 134 = 402 6 x 67 = 402 To solve such a problem you use prime decomposition: This allows you to break any integer down into a multiple of prime numbers as in 2x3x67=402. Two, Three and 67 are all prime. From there to find all possible options, multiply the primes together: 2x3x67=402 --> 3x67=201 --> 2x201=402 2x3x67=402 --> 2x67=134 --> 3x134=402 2x3x67=402 --> 2x3=6 --> 6x67=402 This is under the assumption that this problem is restricted to integers. If real numbers are used, there are infinitely many solutions:
The factors of 402 are: 1, 2, 3, 6, 67, 134, 201, 402.
It is 402.
The factors of 402 are: 1, 2, 3, 6, 67, 134, 201, and 402.The prime factors of 402 are: 2, 3, and 67.
1, 2, 3, 6, 67, 134, 201, 402 1, 2, 3, 6, 67, 134, 201, 402
To determine if 402 is divisible by 3, you can add the digits together: 4 + 0 + 2 = 6. Since 6 is divisible by 3, this means that 402 is also divisible by 3. Therefore, yes, 402 is divisible by 3.
1, 2, 3, 6, 67, 134, 201, 402.
6 x 67 = 402
402
The GCF is 6.