When you divide both sides of an inequality by a negative number, the inequality sign flips.
With the equal sign (=).
No, you only flip the inequality sign if you are dividing by a negative number on both sides of the inequality
When solving an inequality, you must revers the inequality sign when you multiply (or divide) both sides by a negative number.
Basically. If the inequality's sign is < or ≤, then you shade the part under the line. If the inequality's sign is > or ≥, then you shade the part over the line.
"x281" is an expression, not an inequality. An inequality is supposed to have an inequality sign, such as "<" or ">".
When you divide both sides of an inequality by a negative number, the inequality sign flips.
There is no inequality since there is no inequality sign.
With the equal sign (=).
No, you only flip the inequality sign if you are dividing by a negative number on both sides of the inequality
When solving an inequality, you must revers the inequality sign when you multiply (or divide) both sides by a negative number.
Yes, when the inequality has a less that or equal to sign, or a greater than sign or equal to sign, then the equal sign can be replaced and get a solution that is common to both the equation and the inequality. There can also be other solutions to the inequality, where as the solution for the equation will be a valid one.
inequality sign
No. An inequality must have an inequality sign, for example, "<".
This is not an inequality. There is no <,>, or = sign.
>
The inequality sign opens towards the bigger number.