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If f(x) is a function, the inverse may, or may not, be a function. In math, quite often it is possible, and sensible, to restrict the original function to a certain range of numbers, within which the inverse is well-defined.The function f(x) has an inverse (within a certain range) if it is strictly monotonous within that range.

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It will be only if f(x) is a bijection - that is, one-to-one and onto. You may be able to make f(x) a bijection by altering its domain. For example, f(x) = sin(x), where x is measured in degrees, is a function defined for all real x. The inverse mapping is g(x) = arcsin(x) or sin-1(x). Then g(x) is not a function because g(0.5) = 30 degrees or 150 deg or (30+k*360) deg or (150+k*360) deg where k is any integer. That is, g(0.5) has infinitely many values and so cannot be a function. However, if the domain of f(x) is restricted to -90 to 90 degrees, then g(x) is a function.

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Q: Is the inverse of f of x a function?
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