A function that, given X, will produce Y has an inverse function that will take Y and produce X. More formally:
If f(x)=y, then f-1(y)=x
Where f-1() denotes the inverse function of f()
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No. The inverse of an exponential function is a logarithmic function.
-6 is a number, not a function and so there is not an inverse function.
X squared is not an inverse function; it is a quadratic function.
The inverse of the function y = x is denoted as y = x. The inverse function essentially swaps the roles of x and y, so the inverse of y = x is x = y. In other words, the inverse function of y = x is the function x = y.
Inverse of a function exists only if it is a Bijection. Bijection=Injection(one to one)+surjection (onto) function.