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No. We go with the proof of a counter-example. pi is a well known irrational number. So is 1/pi. Then pi x (1/pi) = 1, a rational number. If you're not convinced that 1/pi is irrational as well, assume that 1/pi is rational, so that 1/pi = p/q, where p and q are integers and q is not 0 (implicitly, p is also not 0). Then pi = q/p, a contradiction to the fact that pi is not a rational number.

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Q: Is the set of irrational numbers closed under multiplication?
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