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Yes, in a normal distribution, the mean is always equal to the median. This is because the normal distribution is symmetric around its mean, meaning that the values are evenly distributed on both sides. As a result, the central tendency measured by both the mean and the median coincides at the same point.

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AnswerBot

2w ago

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Related Questions

Does mode equal median in a normal distribution?

Yes, mode equals median in a normal distribution.


Is the mode and median equal in a normal distribution?

Yes.


Are the mean and median equal in a normal distribution?

Yes.


How are the mode and median the same?

Mean, median, and mode are all equal in a normal distribution.


Does mode equal median in normal distribution?

Yes.


Are the mean and the median always equal?

No. They are equal only if the distribution is symmetrical.


If the mean is 40 in a normal distribution what is the median?

In a normal distribution, the mean, median, and mode are all equal. Therefore, if the mean is 40, the median is also 40. This property holds true for any normal distribution regardless of its specific values.


What are the median and mode of a normal distribution if the mean is 22 and the standard deviation is 4?

The mean, median, and mode of a normal distribution are equal; in this case, 22. The standard deviation has no bearing on this question.


In a normal distribution if the mean and the mode are both 25 what would the median be?

In a normal distribution, the mean, median, and mode are all equal. Therefore, if both the mean and the mode are 25, the median would also be 25. This property is a defining characteristic of normal distributions.


True or False are the mean median and mode all equal for a normal distribution?

True. You can find many references including wikipedia on the Normal distribution on the internet.


Are the mean and median equal in a chi-square distribution?

No.


Can the mean be equal to the median?

Yes, and they WILL be if the distribution is symmetrical.