Yes.
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All rational numbers, with the exception of zero (0), have a multiplicative inverse. In fact, all real numbers (again, except for zero) have multiplicative inverses, though the inverses of irrational numbers are themselves irrational. Even imaginary numbers have multiplicative inverses (the multiplicative inverse of 5i is -0.2i - as you can see the inverse itself is also imaginary). Even complex numbers (the sum of an imaginary number and a real number) have multiplicative inverses (the inverse of [5i + 2] is [-5i/29 + 2/29] - similar to irrational and imaginary numbers, the inverse of a complex number is itself complex). The onlynumber, in any set of numbers, that does not have a multiplicative inverse is zero.
Divide 1 by the number. The multiplicative inverse of 7 is 1/7, for example.
The multiplicative inverse of a number is any number that will multiply by it to make zero. Here, the multiplicative inverse of -6 is -(1/6), or negative one sixth.
The answer will depend on what you mean by "opposite": the additive inverse or the multiplicative inverse.
An inverse, without any qualification, is taken to be the multiplicative inverse. is The inverse of a number, x (x not 0), is 1 divided by x. Any number multiplied by its inverse must be equal to 1. There is also an additive inverse. For any number y, the additive inverse is -y. And the sum of the two must always be 0.