Is signum function a bijective function?

Answer 1

Honey, the signum function is about as bijective as a one-way street. It sure ain't bijective, because it maps every non-zero number to 1, completely ignoring the negative numbers. So, in short, signum function is not bijective, it's as one-sided as a bad Tinder date.

Answer 2

Oh, dude, the signum function is not bijective because it maps all positive numbers to 1, all negative numbers to -1, and 0 to 0. So, like, it's not one-to-one, but it's definitely onto because it covers all the possible outputs. So, technically correct, but not exactly the life of the party in the bijective world, you know?

Answer 3

Ah, the signum function is a special one. It's not a bijective function because it maps all positive numbers to 1, all negative numbers to -1, and 0 to 0. While it covers all real numbers, it doesn't have a one-to-one correspondence, so it's not bijective. But remember, every function is unique and beautiful in its own way.

Answer 4

The signum function is defined as follows:

f(x) = -1 if x < 0

= 0 if x=0

= 1 if x > 0

It is not one-to-one (bijective) as can be easility seen).

f(2)=1

f(3)=1

f(10)=1

and so on.