No, it is not. To be correct, the expression requires parenthesis, which are missing.
No, it does not.
For finding the angles in a right angled triangle the ratios are: sine = opposite divided by the hypotenuse cosine = adjacent divided by the hypotenuse tangent = opposite divided by the adjacent
It is 1.
The inverse of sine (sin) is cosecant (csc). The inverse of cosine (cos) is secant (sec). The inverse of tangent (tan) is cotangent (cot).
Tangent = sine/cosine provided that cosine is non-zero. When cosine is 0, then tangent is undefined.
Cotangent is 1 / tangent. Since tangent is sine / cosine, cotangent is cosine / sine.
sine, cosine, tangent, cosecant, secant and cotangent.
Sine, Cosine, Tangent, Cotangent, secant and cosecant
sine, cosine, tangent, cosecant, secant, cotangent.
The basic functions of trigonometry are: sine cosine tangent secant cosecant cotangent
Sine, Cosine, Tangent, Cosecant, Secant, Cotangent.
sine, cosine, tangent, cosecant, secant and cotangent.
Basically we have two. One is sine and the other is cosine Right from these two we can get tangent Reciprocal of sine is cosecant Reciprocal of cosine is secant Reciprocal of tangent is cotangent
Sine Cosine Tangent Cotangent Secant Cosecant
cosecant = 1/sine secant = 1/cosine cotangent = 1/tangent
Assuming that "secany" is meant to be secant, the answer is cosecant.
No, it does not.