Rewrite sec x as 1/cos x. Then,
sec x sin x = (1/cos x)(sin x) = sin x/cos x. By definition, this is equal to tan x.
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Cos x = 1 / Sec x so 1 / Cos x = Sec x Then Tan x = Sin x / Cos x = Sin x * (1 / Cos x) = Sin x * Sec x
Prove that tan(x)sin(x) = sec(x)-cos(x) tan(x)sin(x) = [sin(x) / cos (x)] sin(x) = sin2(x) / cos(x) = [1-cos2(x)] / cos(x) = 1/cos(x) - cos2(x)/ cos(x) = sec(x)-cos(x) Q.E.D
To show that (cos tan = sin) ??? Remember that tan = (sin/cos) When you substitute it for tan, cos tan = cos (sin/cos) = sin QED
sec + tan = cos /(1 + sin) sec and tan are defined so cos is non-zero. 1/cos + sin/cos = cos/(1 + sin) (1 + sin)/cos = cos/(1 + sin) cross-multiplying, (1 + sin)2 = cos2 (1 + sin)2 = 1 - sin2 1 + 2sin + sin2 = 1 - sin2 2sin2 + 2sin = 0 sin2 + sin = 0 sin(sin + 1) = 0 so sin = 0 or sin = -1 But sin = -1 implies that cos = 0 and cos is non-zero. Therefore sin = 0 or the solutions are k*pi radians where k is an integer.
It also equals 13 12.