Cos x = 1 / Sec x so 1 / Cos x = Sec x Then Tan x = Sin x / Cos x = Sin x * (1 / Cos x) = Sin x * Sec x
Rewrite sec x as 1/cos x. Then, sec x sin x = (1/cos x)(sin x) = sin x/cos x. By definition, this is equal to tan x.
sec(x) = 2 so cos(x) = 1/2 and so x = pi/3
2/cos(a) = 2 sec(a)
Show that sec'x = d/dx (sec x) = sec x tan x. First, take note that sec x = 1/cos x; d sin x = cos x dx; d cos x = -sin x dx; and d log u = du/u. From the last, we have du = u d log u. Then, letting u = sec x, we have, d sec x = sec x d log sec x; and d log sec x = d log ( 1 / cos x ) = -d log cos x = d ( -cos x ) / cos x = sin x dx / cos x = tan x dx. Thence, d sec x = sec x tan x dx, and sec' x = sec x tan x, which is what we set out to show.
Start on the left-hand side. cos(x) + tan(x)sin(x) Put tan(x) in terms of sin(x) and cos(x). cos(x) + [sin(x)/cos(x)]sin(x) Multiply. cos(x) + sin2(x)/cos(x) Make the denominators equal. cos2(x)/cos(x) + sin2(x)/cos(x) Add. [cos2(x) + sin2(x)]/cos(x) Use the Pythagorean Theorem to simplify. 1/cos(x) Since 1/cos(x) is the same as sec(x)- the right-hand side- the proof is complete.
sec(x)=1/cos(x), by definition of secant.
No.
Cos x = 1 / Sec x so 1 / Cos x = Sec x Then Tan x = Sin x / Cos x = Sin x * (1 / Cos x) = Sin x * Sec x
Yes, it is. the basic identity is for a double angle relation: cos 2x = 2 cosx cos x -1 since sec x =1/cos x if we multiply both sides by sec x we get cos2xsec x = 2cosxcos x/cos x -1/cos x = 2cos x - sec x
Rewrite sec x as 1/cos x. Then, sec x sin x = (1/cos x)(sin x) = sin x/cos x. By definition, this is equal to tan x.
sec x = 1/cos x sec x cos x = [1/cos x] [cos x] = 1
The population of Tansin is 646.
sec x = 1/cos x so sec x * cos x = 1
The answer is cos A . cos A = 1/ (sec A)
Let 'theta' = A [as 'A' is easier to type] sec A - 1/(sec A) = 1/(cos A) - cos A = (1 - cos^2 A)/(cos A) = (sin^2 A)/(cos A) = (tan A)*(sin A) Then you can swap back the 'A' with theta
sec(x) = 2 so cos(x) = 1/2 and so x = pi/3