It just simplifies down to 1=1. You have to use your trig identities... tan=sin/cos cot=cos/sin thus tan x cot= (sin/cos) (cos/sin) since sin is in the numerator for tan, when it is multiplied by cot (which has sin in the denominator) both of the signs cancel and both now have a value of 1. The same happens with cos. so you get 1 x 1=1 so there is your answer. just learn your trig identities and you will understand
The Answer is 1 coz, 1-Tan squarex = Cot square X. So cot square x divided cot square x is equal to 1
csc^2x+cot^2x=1
whats the big doubt,cot/tan+1= 1+1= 2
(tanx+cotx)/tanx=(tanx/tanx) + (cotx/tanx) = 1 + (cosx/sinx)/(sinx/cosx)=1 + cos2x/sin2x = 1+cot2x= csc2x This is a pythagorean identity.
The TI-83 does not have the cot button, however, if you type 1/tan( then this will work the same as the cot since cot=1/tan. The other way to do this is to type (cos(x))/(sin(x)) where x is the angle you're looking for. This works because cot=cos/sin
cot2x-tan2x=(cot x -tan x)(cot x + tan x) =0 so either cot x - tan x = 0 or cot x + tan x =0 1) cot x = tan x => 1 / tan x = tan x => tan2x = 1 => tan x = 1 ou tan x = -1 x = pi/4 or x = -pi /4 2) cot x + tan x =0 => 1 / tan x = -tan x => tan2x = -1 if you know about complex number then infinity is the solution to this equation, if not there's no solution in real numbers.
The Answer is 1 coz, 1-Tan squarex = Cot square X. So cot square x divided cot square x is equal to 1
It depends if 1 plus tan theta is divided or multiplied by 1 minus tan theta.
1/ Tan = 1/ (Sin/Cos) = Cos/Sin = Cot (Cotangent)
Cotan(theta) is the reciprocal of the tan(theta). So, cot(theta) = 1/2.
First: note 3 things about cot and tan, and note the given statement:cot = 1/tantan is cyclic with a period of π, that is tan(nπ + x) = tan(x)tan is an odd function, that is tan(-x) = -tan(x)tan(π/4) = 1Now apply them to the problem:cot(π - π/4) = 1/tan(π - π/4)= 1/tan(-π/4)= 1/-tan(π/4)= 1/-1 = -1Thus:cot(π - π/4) = -1.
csc^2x+cot^2x=1
3cot(A) = 4 so cot(A) = 4/3 then tan(A) = 1/(4/3) = 3/4 and so 1 - tan(A) = 1-3/4 = 1/4
whats the big doubt,cot/tan+1= 1+1= 2
cot(15)=1/tan(15) Let us find tan(15) tan(15)=tan(45-30) tan(a-b) = (tan(a)-tan(b))/(1+tan(a)tan(b)) tan(45-30)= (tan(45)-tan(30))/(1+tan(45)tan(30)) substitute tan(45)=1 and tan(30)=1/√3 into the equation. tan(45-30) = (1- 1/√3) / (1+1/√3) =(√3-1)/(√3+1) The exact value of cot(15) is the reciprocal of the above which is: (√3+1) /(√3-1)
Since sin(theta) = 1/cosec(theta) the first two terms simply camcel out and you are left with 1 divided by tan(theta), which is cot(theta).
Cot(90) = 0 so 1/cot(90), if defined, would be 1/0. Such a fraction is not defined and that is what is wrong with the sentence.