Best Answer

First: note 3 things about cot and tan, and note the given statement:

- cot = 1/tan
- tan is cyclic with a period of Ï€, that is tan(nÏ€ + x) = tan(x)
- tan is an odd function, that is tan(-x) = -tan(x)
- tan(Ï€/4) = 1

Now apply them to the problem:

- cot(Ï€ - Ï€/4) = 1/tan(Ï€ - Ï€/4)
- = 1/tan(-Ï€/4)
- = 1/-tan(Ï€/4)
- = 1/-1 = -1

Thus:

cot(Ï€ - Ï€/4) = -1.

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Q: What is cot of pi - pi over 4 given that tan of pi over 4 equals 1?

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For an angle, ?, the cotangent (or cot) of the angle is given bycot ? = 1/tan ?If ?=65

cot(115º) = -tan(25) or cot(115º) = -0.466308

Cot(90) = 0 so 1/cot(90), if defined, would be 1/0. Such a fraction is not defined and that is what is wrong with the sentence.

tan2(theta) + 5*tan(theta) = 0 => tan(theta)*[tan(theta) + 5] = 0=> tan(theta) = 0 or tan(theta) = -5If tan(theta) = 0 then tan(theta) + cot(theta) is not defined.If tan(theta) = -5 then tan(theta) + cot(theta) = -5 - 1/5 = -5.2

Cot x is 1/tan x or cos x / sin x or +- sqrt cosec^2 x -1

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Yes.

Yes, it is.

cot2x-tan2x=(cot x -tan x)(cot x + tan x) =0 so either cot x - tan x = 0 or cot x + tan x =0 1) cot x = tan x => 1 / tan x = tan x => tan2x = 1 => tan x = 1 ou tan x = -1 x = pi/4 or x = -pi /4 2) cot x + tan x =0 => 1 / tan x = -tan x => tan2x = -1 if you know about complex number then infinity is the solution to this equation, if not there's no solution in real numbers.

either cos OR tan-sin equals zero socos=0 at pi/2 and 3pi/2ortan=sin which is impossibleim not sure though

Cotan(theta) is the reciprocal of the tan(theta). So, cot(theta) = 1/2.

The Answer is 1 coz, 1-Tan squarex = Cot square X. So cot square x divided cot square x is equal to 1

It depends if 1 plus tan theta is divided or multiplied by 1 minus tan theta.

For an angle, ?, the cotangent (or cot) of the angle is given bycot ? = 1/tan ?If ?=65

You cannot because cot(0) is not defined, neither is cosec(0).

cot(115º) = -tan(25) or cot(115º) = -0.466308

cot(360Â°) = cot(0Â°) = tan(90Â°) = âˆž

It just simplifies down to 1=1. You have to use your trig identities... tan=sin/cos cot=cos/sin thus tan x cot= (sin/cos) (cos/sin) since sin is in the numerator for tan, when it is multiplied by cot (which has sin in the denominator) both of the signs cancel and both now have a value of 1. The same happens with cos. so you get 1 x 1=1 so there is your answer. just learn your trig identities and you will understand

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