it equals 1
If sin2(theta) = 0, then theta is N pi, N being any integer
An=(4v/pi^2*n^2) sin^2(npi/2)
tan(A) = 1/2 sin(A)/cos(A) = 1/2 sin2(A)/cos2(A) = 1/4 sin2(A)/[1 - sin2(A)] = 1/4 sin2(A) = 1/4*[1 - sin2(A)] 5/4*sin2(A) = 1/4 sin2(A) = 1/5 sin(A) = ±sqrt(1/5) = ±sqrt(5)/5
y = sin2(x) y' = 2sin(x)cos(x) y'' = 2 [ cos(x)cos(x) + sin(x)(-sin(x)) ] = 2 [ cos2(x) - sin2(x) ] = 2 [ 1 - sin2(x) - sin2(x) ] = 2 [ 1 - 2sin2(x) ]
c2 = g lambda / 2 pi
If sin2(theta) = 0, then theta is N pi, N being any integer
An=(4v/pi^2*n^2) sin^2(npi/2)
3
If sin (theta) is 3/5, then sin2 (theta) is (3/5)2, or 9/25.
No.Remember: sin2 + cos2 = 1So, in place of (1 - 2 sin2) we can write (sin2 + cos2 - 2 sin2).Massage that around slightly: (sin2 + cos2 - 2 sin2) = cos2 - sin2That's not equal to (sin2 - cos2), which is the original question we were asked.
tan(A) = 1/2 sin(A)/cos(A) = 1/2 sin2(A)/cos2(A) = 1/4 sin2(A)/[1 - sin2(A)] = 1/4 sin2(A) = 1/4*[1 - sin2(A)] 5/4*sin2(A) = 1/4 sin2(A) = 1/5 sin(A) = ±sqrt(1/5) = ±sqrt(5)/5
y = sin2(x) y' = 2sin(x)cos(x) y'' = 2 [ cos(x)cos(x) + sin(x)(-sin(x)) ] = 2 [ cos2(x) - sin2(x) ] = 2 [ 1 - sin2(x) - sin2(x) ] = 2 [ 1 - 2sin2(x) ]
c2 = g lambda / 2 pi
y = 2(x) - (pi/3) + (sqrt(3)/2)
The period of the tangent function is PI. The period of y= tan(2x) is PI over the coefficient of x = PI/2
there could be many... sin2(a/2) / cos2(a/2)
sec + tan = cos /(1 + sin) sec and tan are defined so cos is non-zero. 1/cos + sin/cos = cos/(1 + sin) (1 + sin)/cos = cos/(1 + sin) cross-multiplying, (1 + sin)2 = cos2 (1 + sin)2 = 1 - sin2 1 + 2sin + sin2 = 1 - sin2 2sin2 + 2sin = 0 sin2 + sin = 0 sin(sin + 1) = 0 so sin = 0 or sin = -1 But sin = -1 implies that cos = 0 and cos is non-zero. Therefore sin = 0 or the solutions are k*pi radians where k is an integer.