There are multiple ways to interpret this question-that is, you could mean either (5-x+cosx)/x or 5-x +(cosx/x). The limit of the second option is negative infinity because as x approaches infinity, |cosx/x|≤1, so 5-x+cosx/x is very close to 5-x, and 5-infinity is basically negative infinity. For the first option, we consider that -1≤cosx≤1. This implies that, as x approaches infinity, lim of (5-x-1)/x≤lim of (5-x+cosx)/x≤lim of (5-x+1)/x. Simplifying, we get that, as x approaches infinity, lim of (4-x)/x≤lim of (5-x+cosx)/x≤(6-x)/x. Simplifying our new limits, we get -1≤lim of (5-x+cosx)/x≤1. It is now clear that the limit of (5-x+cosx)/x as x approaches infinity =negative 1.
This browser is totally bloody useless for mathematical display but...The probability function of the binomial distribution is P(X = r) = (nCr)*p^r*(1-p)^(n-r) where nCr =n!/[r!(n-r)!]Let n -> infinity while np = L, a constant, so that p = L/nthenP(X = r) = lim as n -> infinity of n*(n-1)*...*(n-k+1)/r! * (L/n)^r * (1 - L/n)^(n-r)= lim as n -> infinity of {n^r - O[(n)^(k-1)]}/r! * (L^r/n^r) * (1 - L/n)^(n-r)= lim as n -> infinity of 1/r! * (L^r) * (1 - L/n)^(n-r) (cancelling out n^r and removing O(n)^(r-1) as being insignificantly smaller than the denominator, n^r)= lim as n -> infinity of (L^r) / r! * (1 - L/n)^(n-r)Now lim n -> infinity of (1 - L/n)^n = e^(-L)and lim n -> infinity of (1 - L/n)^r = lim (1 - 0)^r = 1lim as n -> infinity of (1 - L/n)^(n-r) = e^(-L)So P(X = r) = L^r * e^(-L)/r! which is the probability function of the Poisson distribution with parameter L.
The definition of the derivative, at a point X = x is the limit, as dx tends to 0, of [f(x+dx)-f(x)]/dx. In this case, therefore, it is lim[3*(x+dx)+2 - (3*x+2)]/dx = lim[3x + 3*dx +2 - 3x - 2]/dx = lim[3*dx/dx] = lim[3] = 3.
If you mean: Lim(x→2) 3x + 1 Then the answer is 7 If you mean something else, then you'll need to clarify your question.
You do what we call an "improper integral". I will denote the integral of f from a to b as intl a-b (f) here. so we define intl a-infinity (f) as lim b->infinity a-b(f) So it is a limit, and just like all other integrals, it may or may not exist (+/- infinity or infinite uncountable oscilations etc.) You have have to prove yourself though about its properties (it's easy since I reduced it to the regular integral) and you will see it's a perfectly fine definition. If you want examples, I have lots, message me.
E to the power infinity, or lim en as n approaches infinity is infinity.
There are multiple ways to interpret this question-that is, you could mean either (5-x+cosx)/x or 5-x +(cosx/x). The limit of the second option is negative infinity because as x approaches infinity, |cosx/x|≤1, so 5-x+cosx/x is very close to 5-x, and 5-infinity is basically negative infinity. For the first option, we consider that -1≤cosx≤1. This implies that, as x approaches infinity, lim of (5-x-1)/x≤lim of (5-x+cosx)/x≤lim of (5-x+1)/x. Simplifying, we get that, as x approaches infinity, lim of (4-x)/x≤lim of (5-x+cosx)/x≤(6-x)/x. Simplifying our new limits, we get -1≤lim of (5-x+cosx)/x≤1. It is now clear that the limit of (5-x+cosx)/x as x approaches infinity =negative 1.
The value of e, also known as Euler's number, is an irrational mathematical constant approximately equal to 2.71828. It is the base of the natural logarithm and appears in many important mathematical formulas, such as compound interest, probability, and calculus. Euler's number is a fundamental constant in mathematics and is widely used in various fields of science and engineering.
This browser is totally bloody useless for mathematical display but...The probability function of the binomial distribution is P(X = r) = (nCr)*p^r*(1-p)^(n-r) where nCr =n!/[r!(n-r)!]Let n -> infinity while np = L, a constant, so that p = L/nthenP(X = r) = lim as n -> infinity of n*(n-1)*...*(n-k+1)/r! * (L/n)^r * (1 - L/n)^(n-r)= lim as n -> infinity of {n^r - O[(n)^(k-1)]}/r! * (L^r/n^r) * (1 - L/n)^(n-r)= lim as n -> infinity of 1/r! * (L^r) * (1 - L/n)^(n-r) (cancelling out n^r and removing O(n)^(r-1) as being insignificantly smaller than the denominator, n^r)= lim as n -> infinity of (L^r) / r! * (1 - L/n)^(n-r)Now lim n -> infinity of (1 - L/n)^n = e^(-L)and lim n -> infinity of (1 - L/n)^r = lim (1 - 0)^r = 1lim as n -> infinity of (1 - L/n)^(n-r) = e^(-L)So P(X = r) = L^r * e^(-L)/r! which is the probability function of the Poisson distribution with parameter L.
The definition of the derivative, at a point X = x is the limit, as dx tends to 0, of [f(x+dx)-f(x)]/dx. In this case, therefore, it is lim[3*(x+dx)+2 - (3*x+2)]/dx = lim[3x + 3*dx +2 - 3x - 2]/dx = lim[3*dx/dx] = lim[3] = 3.
Limit as x tends to ∞: x/e^xAs you can see, as x approaches infinity, the sum becomes ∞/∞. Now we use l'Hospitals rules.d/dx(x) = 1 (Derivative)d/dx(e^x) = e^x (Derivative)therefore, the sum can be written as lim x tends to ∞ 1/e^xNow as x approaches infinity, the sum = 1/∞ = 0Therefore, lim x tends to infinity: x/e^x = 0
If you mean: Lim(x→2) 3x + 1 Then the answer is 7 If you mean something else, then you'll need to clarify your question.
You do what we call an "improper integral". I will denote the integral of f from a to b as intl a-b (f) here. so we define intl a-infinity (f) as lim b->infinity a-b(f) So it is a limit, and just like all other integrals, it may or may not exist (+/- infinity or infinite uncountable oscilations etc.) You have have to prove yourself though about its properties (it's easy since I reduced it to the regular integral) and you will see it's a perfectly fine definition. If you want examples, I have lots, message me.
When the limit of x approaches 0 x approaches the value of x approaches infinity.
Undefined: You cannot divide by zero
Lim x (is going to 0) x/(x^2 + 2x)= Lim x (is going to 0) x/[x(x + 2)]= Lim x (is going to 0) 1/(x + 2) = 1/2
lim x -> -inf [x/ex] = lim x -> +inf[-x/e-x] = - lim x -> +inf [ xex ] = -infIf you want to see this function then I suggest you use either:(a) wolframalpha.com: put in show me x/exp(x)or (b) geogebra, which is available for the desktop.