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The definition of tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x). By this property, cos(x)tan(x) = sin(x).
tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) + tan (C-A)=0 tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) - tan (A-C)=0 tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) = tan (A-C) (A-B) + (B-C) = A-C So we can solve tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) = tan (A-C) by first solving tan x + tan y = tan (x+y) and then substituting x = A-B and y = B-C. tan (x+y) = (tan x + tan y)/(1 - tan x tan y) So tan x + tan y = (tan x + tan y)/(1 - tan x tan y) (tan x + tan y)tan x tan y = 0 So, tan x = 0 or tan y = 0 or tan x = - tan y tan(A-B) = 0 or tan(B-C) = 0 or tan(A-B) = - tan(B-C) tan(A-B) = 0 or tan(B-C) = 0 or tan(A-B) = tan(C-B) A, B and C are all angles of a triangle, so are all in the range (0, pi). So A-B and B-C are in the range (- pi, pi). At this point I sketched a graph of y = tan x (- pi < x < pi) By inspection I can see that: A-B = 0 or B-C = 0 or A-B = C-B or A-B = C-B +/- pi A = B or B = C or A = C or A = C +/- pi But A and C are both in the range (0, pi) so A = C +/- pi has no solution So A = B or B = C or A = C A triangle ABC has the property that tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) + tan (C-A)=0 if and only if it is isosceles (or equilateral).
(sin(x)cot(x) - cos(x))/tan(x)(Multiply by tan(x)/tan(x))sin(x) - cos(x)tan(x)(tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x))sinx - cos(x)(sin(x)/cos(x))(cos(x) cancels out)sin(x) - sin(x)0
If y = sin(cos(tan(x))) Using the chain rule: (f(g(x)))' = f'(g(x)).g'(x) Then dy/dx = cos(cos(tan(x))).-sin(tan(x)).sec2(x) = -cos(cos(tan(x))).sin(tan(x)).sec2(x) Unfortunately I don't think this can be simplified much more. ( sec = 1/cos )
It isn't, but here is a corrected equation that is: tan1 x tan 20 x tan 45 x tan 70 x tan 89 = 1 It will then work because tan(45 + x) = 1/tan(45 - x). Hence tan1 cancels when multiplied with tan89, and tan20 cancels with tan70. tan 45 equals 1, and so the whole expression cancels to 1. I think this effect was what the equation was intended to demonstrate.