A more formal name is the strict inequality sign.
If a word problem states "no more than", the corresponding inequality sign is less than or equal to (≤). For example, if x is no more than than 4, then: x ≤ 4.
Yes, when the inequality has a less that or equal to sign, or a greater than sign or equal to sign, then the equal sign can be replaced and get a solution that is common to both the equation and the inequality. There can also be other solutions to the inequality, where as the solution for the equation will be a valid one.
inequality sign
An inequality sign which means > more than and < less than
A more formal name is the strict inequality sign.
"x281" is an expression, not an inequality. An inequality is supposed to have an inequality sign, such as "<" or ">".
When you divide both sides of an inequality by a negative number, the inequality sign flips.
If a word problem states "no more than", the corresponding inequality sign is less than or equal to (≤). For example, if x is no more than than 4, then: x ≤ 4.
There is no inequality since there is no inequality sign.
With the equal sign (=).
No, you only flip the inequality sign if you are dividing by a negative number on both sides of the inequality
When solving an inequality, you must revers the inequality sign when you multiply (or divide) both sides by a negative number.
Yes, when the inequality has a less that or equal to sign, or a greater than sign or equal to sign, then the equal sign can be replaced and get a solution that is common to both the equation and the inequality. There can also be other solutions to the inequality, where as the solution for the equation will be a valid one.
It's the "less than" sign [ < ] above the "equals" sign [ = ].≤When you see it, you read it " ... less than or equal to ... ". That's the same as " ... no more than ... "
inequality sign
No. An inequality must have an inequality sign, for example, "<".