No.
Assuming the domain and range are both the real numbers (or rationals): Yes, it is 1 to 1 Yes, it is onto and the inverse is x = (y-3)/4
It is a linear function. That is to say, it is a function representing a straight line in the coordinate plane.
1 plus 1 plus 1 plus 1 equals 1 times 4. 1 times 4 equals 4. 4 minus 4 equals 0. 0
No, but cos(-x) = cos(x), because the cosine function is an even function.
No.
The answer depends on the domain. If the domain is the whole of the real numbers, the range in y ≥ 1. However, you can choose to have the domain as [1, 2] in which case the range will be [2, 5]. If you choose another domain you will get another range.
The [ 2x + 1 ] represents a function of 'y' .
Assuming the domain and range are both the real numbers (or rationals): Yes, it is 1 to 1 Yes, it is onto and the inverse is x = (y-3)/4
It is a linear function. That is to say, it is a function representing a straight line in the coordinate plane.
B- It is a many-to-one function
Yes. Think of y as being a function of x. y = f(x) = x2 + 1
If you mean the arcsin function then the range is the whole of the real numbers - from "minus infinity" to "plus infinity". If you mean the cosecant function, the answer is the whole of the real numbers excluding (-1, 1).
No...it equals 4...
1 plus 1 plus 1 plus 1 equals 1 times 4. 1 times 4 equals 4. 4 minus 4 equals 0. 0
Y = 5X + 1 Is a line and should pass the vertical line test for functions, so this is a function.
4+1=5. Plus 4 equals 9. Plus 77685769844446473 equals 77685769844446482. Plus 3 equals 77685769844446485. Plus 8 equals 77685769844446493. Plus 1 equals 77685769844446494. Plus 9870998342523322424 equals 1064785604097768918. Plus 4 equals 1064785604097768922.