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# Is the LCM of a set of numbers is equal to the one of the numbers in the set?

Updated: 8/31/2023

Wiki User

8y ago

Yes, if one of the numbers is a multiple of the other.

Wiki User

7y ago

Emma Jean

Lvl 1
1y ago
Not help

Wiki User

7y ago

Yes it can, if that number is a multiple of all the other numbers in the set.

For example, LCM(5, 10, 40) = 40

Wiki User

8y ago

It can be but isn't necessarily.

Wiki User

8y ago

It can be but doesn't have to be.

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Q: Is the LCM of a set of numbers is equal to the one of the numbers in the set?
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Related questions

### Is this true that the LCM of a set of numbers is equal to one of the numbers and the set?

It can be but it is not always true.

sometimes

### How do you find the least common multiple that are prime?

The LCM of a set of prime numbers is their product.

2468101216

Yes

### How Can the LCM of a set of numbers can ever be smaller than the other numbers?

The LCM of a set of numbers can never be smaller than the largest number in the set.

### Can a LCM be one?

Yes, if the the number you are finding the LCM of is 1. But usually, LCM involves two or more numbers. While finding the LCM of one number is uncommon and technically an incorrect practice, it is possible.

### What is the LCM of 25 and 0?

The LCM is not defined for any set of numbers that contains a zero.

### Is greater the LCM of the numbers or the numbers or the GCF of the numbers?

The LCM will never be less than the GCF of a set of numbers.

### Which is greater gcf or LCM?

The LCM of two numbers will never be less than the GCF.

### What set of 3 numbers whose LCM is the product of the number?

The set of three numbers whose LCM (Least Common Multiple) is equal to the product of the numbers would be {1, 2, 2}. Here's how it works: LCM(1, 2, 2) = 2, which is also the product of the numbers (1 * 2 * 2 = 4).

The LCM is: 630