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Yes, if one of the numbers is a multiple of the other.

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Yes it can, if that number is a multiple of all the other numbers in the set.

For example, LCM(5, 10, 40) = 40

It can be but isn't necessarily.

It can be but doesn't have to be.

Q: Is the LCM of a set of numbers is equal to the one of the numbers in the set?

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Yes, if the the number you are finding the LCM of is 1. But usually, LCM involves two or more numbers. While finding the LCM of one number is uncommon and technically an incorrect practice, it is possible.

The LCM of two numbers will never be less than the GCF.

The least common multiple, or LCM, is the smallest positive integer that all the members of a given set of numbers will divide into evenly with no remainder. The least common factor of any set of integers is 1.

Two numbers that have an LCM of 28 are 14 and 28.

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It can be but it is not always true.

sometimes

The LCM of a set of prime numbers is their product.

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Yes

The LCM of a set of numbers can never be smaller than the largest number in the set.

Yes, if the the number you are finding the LCM of is 1. But usually, LCM involves two or more numbers. While finding the LCM of one number is uncommon and technically an incorrect practice, it is possible.

The LCM is not defined for any set of numbers that contains a zero.

The LCM will never be less than the GCF of a set of numbers.

The LCM of two numbers will never be less than the GCF.

The set of three numbers whose LCM (Least Common Multiple) is equal to the product of the numbers would be {1, 2, 2}. Here's how it works: LCM(1, 2, 2) = 2, which is also the product of the numbers (1 * 2 * 2 = 4).

The LCM is: 630