It's 10 i think...a lol
The LCM of 8, 10, and 20 is 40. Multiples of 8: 8, 16, 24, 32, 40, 48...... Multiples of 10: 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60...... Multiples of 20: 20, 40, 60, 80 The smallest number that all three numbers go into evenly is 40. Therefore the LCM of 8, 10, and 20 is 40.
-20 and -20 10 and -50 40 and -80
Two of the factors of 40 are odd. The factors of 40 are: 1, 2, 4, 5, 8, 10, 20, 40
The factors of 40 are: 1, 2, 4, 5, 8, 10, 20, 40.
Say if you had the pattern 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50 To find the nth term you have to see what the gap between the numbers is. In our case this is 5. Then you have to find out what the difference between the gap and the first number. In this sequence it is 10. So your answer would be..... 5n+10 That's how you find the nth term.
6n+10
The first term is 10. Dividing (say) the 3rd term by the 2nd term gives 40/20 = 2 Dividing any two successive terms in this manner results in the same answer. Then 2 is the common ratio. The general formula for the nth term of a Geometric Progression or Series is :- a(n) = ar^n-1.....where a is the first term and r is the common ratio. For the pattern provided, a(n) = 10 x 2^n-1
The nth term is 2n So the 20th term is 2 x 20 = 40.
The (n)th term = the (n - 1)th term + (2n + 1)
This is an arithmetic progression. In general, If an A.P. has a first term 'a', and a common difference 'd' then the nth term is a + (n - 1)d. In the sequence shown in the question, the first term is 0 and the common difference is 5, therefore the nth term is, 0 + (n - 1)5. This can be rearranged to read : 5(n - 1) For example : the 7th term is 30 : 5(7 - 1) = 5 x 6 = 30.
Here are the first five terms of a sequence. 12 19 26 33 40 Find an expression for the nth term of this sequence.
5=22+12 8=22+22 13=22+32 20=22+42 29=22+52 40=22+62
Any number that you choose can be the nth number. There are infinitely many rules, based on a polynomial of order 5, such that the first five numbers are as listed in the question. There are also non-polynomial solutions. Short of reading the mind of the person who posed the question, there is no way of determining which of the infinitely many solutions is the "correct" one.Using the principle of Occam's razor, the answer isU(n) = 10*n
4 10 16 22 28 34 40 ....... Each term is increased by 6 or nth term = 6n-2
2n(n+1)
It goes up by (24-16) = 8 each time. The first time is 16. So the nth term is 8n + 8.