No.
sin(0) = 0
So cos(0)*sin(0) = 0 so the left hand side = 1
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If sin θ = tan θ, that means cos θ is 1 (since tan θ = (sin θ)/(cos θ)) (Usually in and equation a/b=a, b doesn't have to be 1 when a is 0, but cos θ = 1 if and only if sin θ = 0) The angles that satisfy cos θ = 1 is 2n(pi) (or 360n in degrees) When n is an integer. But if sin θ = tan θ = θ, the only answer is θ = 0. Because sin 0 is 0 and cos 0 is 1 and tan 0 is 0 The only answer would be when θ = 0.
cos x - 2 sin x cos x = 0 -> cos x (1 - 2 sin x) = 0 => cos x = 0 or 1 - 2 sin x = 0 cos x = 0: x = π/2 + kπ 1 - 2 sin x = 0: sin x = 1/2 -> x = π/6 + 2kπ or 5/6π + 2kπ Thus x = π/2 + kπ; x = π/6 + 2kπ; x = 5/6π + 2kπ solve the original equation.
cos(α) = sin(90° - α) → cos(16° + θ) = sin(90° - (16° + θ)) = sin(74° - θ) → sin(36° + θ) = cos(16° + θ) → sin((36° + θ) = sin(74° - θ) → 36° + θ = 74° - θ → 2θ = 38° → θ = 19° → θ = 19 °+ 180°n for n= 0, 1, 2, ...
tan x = sin x / cos x, so:lim (tan x / x) = lim (sin x / x cos x). Since it is known that the limit of sin x / x = 1, you have lim 1 / cos x = 1 (since cos 0 = 1).tan x = sin x / cos x, so:lim (tan x / x) = lim (sin x / x cos x). Since it is known that the limit of sin x / x = 1, you have lim 1 / cos x = 1 (since cos 0 = 1).tan x = sin x / cos x, so:lim (tan x / x) = lim (sin x / x cos x). Since it is known that the limit of sin x / x = 1, you have lim 1 / cos x = 1 (since cos 0 = 1).tan x = sin x / cos x, so:lim (tan x / x) = lim (sin x / x cos x). Since it is known that the limit of sin x / x = 1, you have lim 1 / cos x = 1 (since cos 0 = 1).
cos(a)cos(b)-sin(a)sin(b)=cos(a+b) a=7pi/12 and b=pi/6 a+b = 7pi/12 + pi/6 = 7pi/12 + 2pi/12 = 9pi/12 We want to find cos(9pi/12) cos(9pi/12) = cos(3pi/4) cos(3pi/4)= cos(pi-pi/4) cos(pi)cos(pi/4)-sin(pi)sin(pi/4) cos(pi)=-1 sin(pi)=0 cos(pi/4) = √2/2 sin(pi/4) =√2/2 cos(pi)cos(pi/4)-sin(pi)sin(pi/4) = - cos(pi/4) = -√2/2