No, f(x) is not the inverse of f(x).
f(f(x)) = f(x). Only if f is 1-1 then we have a solution f(x)=x.
m=8 l=6 y=4 m X m = 8 X 8 = 64 =ly m X l = 8 X 6 = 48 = ym
f and g are inverse functions.
g(x) = 5. So whatever f(x) or f(-1) is, g of that is going to be 5.
3.
yup
All of them
The deriviative of f(x) = x is 1 because the slope of the function f(x) = x is 1. Recall the slope-intercept form of a line. The equation f(x) = x can also be stated as y = mx+b, where m is 1 and b is 0. The slope is m, or 1, and the deriviative of f(x) is the slope of f(x), which is m or 1, in this case.
M = 930A = 12F = M A = (930) x (12) = 11,160
F = MA M = F / A A = F / M
it equals 1
f(x)=x+1 g(f(x))=x f(x)-1=x g(x)=x-1
It is linear function in f and a or in f and m, but not in m and a.
a = F divided by km
It is f(x) = 7/x.
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