By definition, every rational number x can be expressed as a ratio p/q where p and q are integers and q is not zero. Consider -p/q. Then by the properties of integers, -p is an integer and is the additive inverse of p. Therefore p + (-p) = 0
Then p/q + (-p/q) = [p + (-p)] /q = 0/q.
Also, -p/q is a ratio of two integers, with q non-zero and so -p/q is also a rational number. That is, -p/q is the additive inverse of x, expressed as a ratio.
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The additive inverse states that a number added to its opposite will equal zero. A + (-A) = 0. The "opposite" number here is the "negative" of the number. For any number n, the additive inverse is (-1)n. So therefore yes.
It is a tautological description of one of the basic properties of numbers used in the branch of mathematics called Analysis: Property 2: there exists an additive identity, called 0; for every number n: n + 0 = 0 + n = n. Property 3: there exists an additive inverse, of every number n denoted by (-n) such that n + (-n) = (-n) + n = 0 (the additive identity).
The multiplicative inverse is when you multiply a certain number, and the product is itself, the number. So, the multiplicative inverse of 8 is of course, 1. For every number, the multiplicative number is 1, because a certain number times 1 is equal to the certain number. It's simple!!
Yes it is, but not every real number is a rational number
No. Though every perfect square is a rational number, not every rational number is a perfect square. Example: 2 is a rational number but sqrt(2) is not rational, so 2 is not a perfect square.