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No. The set of Irrational Numbers has the same cardinality as the set of real numbers, and so is uncountable.

The set of rational numbers is countably infinite.

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Q: Is the set of irrational numbers countably infinite?
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What do you mean by countably infinite and infinite?

Countably infinite means you can set up a one-to-one correspondence between the set in question and the set of natural numbers. It can be shown that no such relationship can be established between the set of real numbers and the natural numbers, thus the set of real numbers is not "countable", but it is infinite.


What do rational and irrational numbers have in common?

Rational and irrational numbers are part of the set of real numbers. There are an infinite number of rational numbers and an infinite number of irrational numbers. But rational numbers are countable infinite, while irrational are uncountable. You can search for these terms for more information. Basically, countable means that you could arrange them in such a way as to count each and every one (though you'd never count them all since there is an infinite number of them). I guess another similarity is: the set of rational numbers is closed for addition and subtraction; the set of irrational numbers is closed for addition and subtraction.


There are fewer rational numbers than irrational numbers?

We can categorize all infinite sets into two categories. The first set is made up of a an infinite number of countable elements and the second consists of a infinite number of elements that cannot be counted. The set of rational numbers is countably infinite. This comes from that fact that we can easily count integers and natural numbers. Just remember to think of rationals as a ratio of two integers, a/b. The set of irrational numbers is uncountably infinite. There is no way to find a correspondence between irrational numbers and integers. By the definition of irrational, they can't be written as fractions. The fact that the natural numbers and rational numbers can be counted and the irrationals cannot be gives some intuitive understanding of why the latter is bigger. In general, it turns out that an countably infinite set is smaller. The German mathematician Georg Cantor did extensive work on the size ( cardinality) of sets including the these two. He provided some amazing proofs in two papers 1895 and 1897 and titled 'Beiträge zur Begründung der transfiniten Mengenlehre' . This is an interesting topic and a link is attached to help the reader understand it better. The proofs require a good deal of set theory background So I have not presented them here, but will give link to those too.


What is infinite and finite set in math?

A set is finite if there exists some integer k such that the number of elements in k is less than k. A set is infinite if there is no such integer: that is, given any integer k, the number of elements in the set exceed k.Infinite sets can be divided into countably infinite and uncountably infinite. A countably infinite set is one whose elements can be mapped, one-to-one, to the set of integers whereas an uncountably infinite set is one in which you cannot.


What is the meaning of irrational?

A real number that does not have a set repeating pattern and goes on forever. Pi is a great example of an irrational number, as all the numbers are random, and the value is infinite.

Related questions

Are there more rational number than irrational numbers?

There are more irrational numbers than rational numbers. The rationals are countably infinite; the irrationals are uncountably infinite. Uncountably infinite means that the set of irrational numbers has a cardinality known as the "cardinality of the continuum," which is strictly greater than the cardinality of the set of natural numbers which is countably infinite. The set of rational numbers has the same cardinality as the set of natural numbers, so there are more irrationals than rationals.


Are there fewer rational numbers than irrational numbers?

For any given subset, yes, because there are an infinite number of irrational numbers for each rational number. But for the set of ALL real numbers, both are infinite in number, even though the vast majority of real numbers would be irrational.


What do you mean by countably infinite and infinite?

Countably infinite means you can set up a one-to-one correspondence between the set in question and the set of natural numbers. It can be shown that no such relationship can be established between the set of real numbers and the natural numbers, thus the set of real numbers is not "countable", but it is infinite.


Is intersection of two countably infinite sets can be finite?

Easily. Indeed, it might be empty. Consider the set of positive odd numbers, and the set of positive even numbers. Both are countably infinite, but their intersection is the empty set. For a non-empty intersection, consider the set of positive odd numbers, and 2, and the set of positive even numbers. Both are still countably infinite, but their intersection is {2}.


How do you prove the set of rational numbers are uncountable?

They are not. They are countably infinite. That is, there is a one-to-one mapping between the set of rational numbers and the set of counting numbers.


What are all the negative numbers?

This is an infinite set starting with -1, -2, -3 and so on.


What are 5 attributes of irrational numbers?

They are not rational, that is, they cannot be expressed as a ratio of two integers.Their decimal equivalent is infinitely long and non-recurring.Together with rational numbers, they form the set of real numbers,Rational numbers are countably infinite, irrational numbers are uncountably infinite.As a result, there are more irrational numbers between 0 and 1 than there are rational numbers - in total!


What is the similarities between whole numbers integers and rational numbers?

Both sets are countably infinite, unlike the set of real numbers.


What are the different types of set?

In terms of size: the null set, a finite set, a countably infinite set and an uncountably infinite set. A countably infinite set is one where each element of the set can be put into a 1-to-1 correspondence with the set of natural numbers. For example, the set of positive even numbers. It is infinite, but each positive even number can me mapped onto one and only one counting number. The set of Real numbers cannot be mapped in such a way (as was proven by Cantor).


Which has the larger set the natural or the whole numbers?

They are both infinite sets: they have countably infinite members and so have the same cardinality - Aleph-null.


How and why are real numbers more difficult to represent and process than integers?

There are more real numbers than integers. The set of integers is countably infinite, of magnitude aleph-zero. The set of real numbers is uncountably infinite (specifically, aleph-one).A computer can't really represent real numbers (that would require an infinite amount of memory), rather, it uses an approximation.There are more real numbers than integers. The set of integers is countably infinite, of magnitude aleph-zero. The set of real numbers is uncountably infinite (specifically, aleph-one).A computer can't really represent real numbers (that would require an infinite amount of memory), rather, it uses an approximation.There are more real numbers than integers. The set of integers is countably infinite, of magnitude aleph-zero. The set of real numbers is uncountably infinite (specifically, aleph-one).A computer can't really represent real numbers (that would require an infinite amount of memory), rather, it uses an approximation.There are more real numbers than integers. The set of integers is countably infinite, of magnitude aleph-zero. The set of real numbers is uncountably infinite (specifically, aleph-one).A computer can't really represent real numbers (that would require an infinite amount of memory), rather, it uses an approximation.


Is a whole number an finite set?

No, it is countably infinite.