The answer is yes is and only if da limit of the sequence is a bounded function.The suficiency derives directly from the definition of the uniform convergence. The necesity follows from making n tend to infinity in |fn(x)|
NO
We prove that if an increasing sequence {an} is bounded above, then it is convergent and the limit is the sup {an }Now we use the least upper bound property of real numbers to say that sup {an } exists and we call it something, say S. We can say this because sup {an } is not empty and by our assumption is it bounded above so it has a LUB.Now for all natural numbers N we look at aN such that for all E, or epsilon greater than 0, we have aN > S-epsilon. This must be true, because if it were not the that number would be an upper bound which contradicts that S is the least upper bound.Now since {an} is increasing for all n greater than N we have |S-an|
How about f(x) = floor(x)? (On, say, [0,1].) It's monotone and therefore of bounded variation, but is not Lipschitz continuous (or even continuous).
If the range is the real numbers, it has a lower bound (zero) but no upper bound.
Infinity, by definition, is not a point. Infinite means unending, so it cannot be located at a point. The moment at which a function reaches infinity is when that function ceases to be bounded.
(0,1,0,1,...)
((-1)^n)
For the statement "convergence implies boundedness," the converse statement would be "boundedness implies convergence."So, we are asking if "boundedness implies convergence" is a true statement.Pf//By way of contradiction, "boundedness implies convergence" is false.Let the sequence (Xn) be defined asXn = 1 if n is even andXn = 0 if n is odd.So, (Xn) = {X1,X2,X3,X4,X5,X6...} = {0,1,0,1,0,1,...}Note that this is a divergent sequence.Also note that for all n, -1 < Xn < 2Therefore, the sequence (Xn) is bounded above by 2 and below by -1.As we can see, we have a bounded function that is divergent. Therefore, by way of contradiction, we have proven the converse false.Q.E.D.
Wrong answer above. A limit is not the same thing as a limit point. A limit of a sequence is a limit point but not vice versa. Every bounded sequence does have at least one limit point. This is one of the versions of the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem for sequences. The sequence {(-1)^n} actually has two limit points, -1 and 1, but no limit.
They are divided by divergent, convergent AND transform boundaries.
NO
We prove that if an increasing sequence {an} is bounded above, then it is convergent and the limit is the sup {an }Now we use the least upper bound property of real numbers to say that sup {an } exists and we call it something, say S. We can say this because sup {an } is not empty and by our assumption is it bounded above so it has a LUB.Now for all natural numbers N we look at aN such that for all E, or epsilon greater than 0, we have aN > S-epsilon. This must be true, because if it were not the that number would be an upper bound which contradicts that S is the least upper bound.Now since {an} is increasing for all n greater than N we have |S-an|
No. y = 1/x is continuous but unbounded.
What is the area bounded by the graph of the function f(x)=1-e^-x over the interval [-1, 2]?
Continent-continent convergenceThe ice age and the subsequent sliding and melting of glaciers account for the mountain belt bounded on either side by craters
Continent-continent convergenceThe ice age and the subsequent sliding and melting of glaciers account for the mountain belt bounded on either side by craters
How about f(x) = floor(x)? (On, say, [0,1].) It's monotone and therefore of bounded variation, but is not Lipschitz continuous (or even continuous).