answersLogoWhite

0


Best Answer

For the statement "convergence implies boundedness," the converse statement would be "boundedness implies convergence."

So, we are asking if "boundedness implies convergence" is a true statement.

Pf//

By way of contradiction, "boundedness implies convergence" is false.

Let the sequence (Xn) be defined as
Xn = 1 if n is even and
Xn = 0 if n is odd.
So, (Xn) = {X1,X2,X3,X4,X5,X6...} = {0,1,0,1,0,1,...}

Note that this is a divergent sequence.
Also note that for all n, -1 < Xn < 2

Therefore, the sequence (Xn) is bounded above by 2 and below by -1.

As we can see, we have a bounded function that is divergent. Therefore, by way of contradiction, we have proven the converse false.

Q.E.D.

User Avatar

Wiki User

15y ago
This answer is:
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Every convergent sequence is bounded is the converse is true?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp
Related questions

Every uniformly convergent sequence of bounded function is uniformly bounded?

The answer is yes is and only if da limit of the sequence is a bounded function.The suficiency derives directly from the definition of the uniform convergence. The necesity follows from making n tend to infinity in |fn(x)|


Is every cauchy sequence is convergent?

Every convergent sequence is Cauchy. Every Cauchy sequence in Rk is convergent, but this is not true in general, for example within S= {x:x&euro;R, x&gt;0} the Cauchy sequence (1/n) has no limit in s since 0 is not a member of S.


Show that convergent sequence is bounded?

Wrong answer above. A limit is not the same thing as a limit point. A limit of a sequence is a limit point but not vice versa. Every bounded sequence does have at least one limit point. This is one of the versions of the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem for sequences. The sequence {(-1)^n} actually has two limit points, -1 and 1, but no limit.


Prove that every convergent sequence is a Cauchy sequence?

The limits on an as n goes to infinity is aThen for some epsilon greater than 0, chose N such that for n>Nwe have |an-a| < epsilon.Now if m and n are > N we have |an-am|=|(am -a)-(an -a)|< or= |am -an | which is < or equal to 2 epsilor so the sequence is Cauchy.


Does Every sequence have a formula associated with it?

no not every sequence has a formula associated with it.


Is compact metric space is complete?

A compact metric space is not necessarily complete. Compactness only guarantees that every sequence in the space has a convergent subsequence, while completeness requires that every Cauchy sequence converges to a point in the space.


How can you use convergent in a sentence?

Fanatics and buyers converge at Comicon in San Diego every year.


Is every polygon with sides a triangle why or why not?

No. In geometry a polygon is a plane (flat) figure that is bounded by a closed path or circuit, composed of a finite sequence of straight line segments. Thus a polygon can have many sides, only that subset of polygons with 3 sides are triangles.


Is every continuous function is bounded in C?

No. y = 1/x is continuous but unbounded.


Where can one find Converse shoes in size 7?

Converse shoes in size 7 can be found in online auctions (mostly second hand). Furthermore somebody can look for converse shops, that can be found in every bigger city.


The converse of a given statement is equivalent to the original statement?

no,not every time but sometimes


Every continuous function is integrible but converse is not true every integrable function is not continuous?

That's true. If a function is continuous, it's (Riemman) integrable, but the converse is not true.