P x Q
750 can be written as 2 x 5p x q where p and q are prime numbers. The value of p is 3 and the value of q is 7
It means the statement P implies Q.
Think of 'not' as being an inverse. Not 1 = 0. Not 0 = 1. Using boolean algebra we can look at your question. 'and' is a test. It wants to know if BOTH P and Q are the same and if they are 1 (true). If they are not the same, or they are both 0, then the result is false or 0. not P and Q is rewritten like so: (P and Q)' = X not P and not Q is rewritten like: P' and Q' = X (the apostrophe is used for not) We will construct a truth table for each and compare the output. If the output is the same, then you have found your equivalency. Otherwise, they are not equivalent. P and Q are the inputs and X is the output. P Q | X P Q | X ------ 0 0 | 1 0 0 | 1 0 1 | 1 0 1 | 0 1 0 | 1 1 0 | 0 1 1 | 0 1 1 | 0 Since the truth tables are not equal, not P and Q is not equivalent to not P and not Q. Perhaps you meant "Is NOT(P AND Q) equivalent to NOT(P) AND NOT(Q)?" NOT(P AND Q) can be thought of intuitively as "Not both P and Q." Which if you think about, you can see that it would be true if something were P but not Q, Q but not P, and neither P nor Q-- so long as they're not both true at the same time. Now, "NOT(P) AND NOT(Q)" is clearly _only_ true when BOTH P and Q are false. So there are cases where NOT(P AND Q) is true but NOT(P) AND NOT(Q) is false (an example would be True(P) and False(Q)). NOT(P AND Q) does have an equivalence however, according to De Morgan's Law. The NOT can be distributed, but in doing so we have to change the "AND" to an "OR". NOT(P AND Q) is equivalent to NOT(P) OR NOT(Q)
If B is between P and Q, then: P<B<Q
p divided by q.
P x Q
In algebra, you could write it as simply 'pq'.
750 can be written as 2 x 5p x q where p and q are prime numbers. The value of p is 3 and the value of q is 7
You could be learning algebra so the letter P and Q could be there filling in for another number. You can also use other letters.
It means the statement P implies Q.
The letters P and Q will be used in algebra math. It also can be used with other letters.
The Boolean prime ideal theorem:Let B be a Boolean algebra, let I be an ideal and let F be a filter of B, such that and IF are disjoint. Then I is contained in some prime ideal of B that is disjoint from F. The consensus theorem:(X and Y) or ((not X) and Z) or (Y and Z) ≡ (X and Y) or ((not X) and Z) xy + x'z + yz ≡ xy + x'zDe Morgan's laws:NOT (P OR Q) ≡ (NOT P) AND (NOT Q)NOT (P AND Q) ≡ (NOT P) OR (NOT Q)AKA:(P+Q)'≡P'Q'(PQ)'≡P'+Q'AKA:¬(P U Q)≡¬P ∩ ¬Q¬(P ∩ Q)≡¬P U ¬QDuality Principle:If a given statement is valid for all partially ordered sets, then its dual statement, obtained by inverting the direction of all order relations and by dualizing all order theoretic definitions involved, is also valid for all partially ordered sets. The laws of classical logicPeirce's law:((P→Q)→P)→PP must be true if there is a proposition Q such that the truth of P follows from the truth of "if Pthen Q". In particular, when Q is taken to be a false formula, the law says that if P must be true whenever it implies the false, then P is true.Stone's representation theorem for Boolean algebras:Every Boolean algebra is isomorphic to a field of sets.Source is linked
a rational number
a rational number
Think of 'not' as being an inverse. Not 1 = 0. Not 0 = 1. Using boolean algebra we can look at your question. 'and' is a test. It wants to know if BOTH P and Q are the same and if they are 1 (true). If they are not the same, or they are both 0, then the result is false or 0. not P and Q is rewritten like so: (P and Q)' = X not P and not Q is rewritten like: P' and Q' = X (the apostrophe is used for not) We will construct a truth table for each and compare the output. If the output is the same, then you have found your equivalency. Otherwise, they are not equivalent. P and Q are the inputs and X is the output. P Q | X P Q | X ------ 0 0 | 1 0 0 | 1 0 1 | 1 0 1 | 0 1 0 | 1 1 0 | 0 1 1 | 0 1 1 | 0 Since the truth tables are not equal, not P and Q is not equivalent to not P and not Q. Perhaps you meant "Is NOT(P AND Q) equivalent to NOT(P) AND NOT(Q)?" NOT(P AND Q) can be thought of intuitively as "Not both P and Q." Which if you think about, you can see that it would be true if something were P but not Q, Q but not P, and neither P nor Q-- so long as they're not both true at the same time. Now, "NOT(P) AND NOT(Q)" is clearly _only_ true when BOTH P and Q are false. So there are cases where NOT(P AND Q) is true but NOT(P) AND NOT(Q) is false (an example would be True(P) and False(Q)). NOT(P AND Q) does have an equivalence however, according to De Morgan's Law. The NOT can be distributed, but in doing so we have to change the "AND" to an "OR". NOT(P AND Q) is equivalent to NOT(P) OR NOT(Q)
Converse: If p r then p q and q rContrapositive: If not p r then not (p q and q r) = If not p r then not p q or not q r Inverse: If not p q and q r then not p r = If not p q or not q r then not p r