Think of 'not' as being an inverse. Not 1 = 0. Not 0 = 1. Using boolean algebra we can look at your question.
'and' is a test. It wants to know if BOTH P and Q are the same and if they are 1 (true). If they are not the same, or they are both 0, then the result is false or 0.
not P and Q is rewritten like so: (P and Q)' = X not P and not Q is rewritten like: P' and Q' = X (the apostrophe is used for not)
We will construct a truth table for each and compare the output. If the output is the same, then you have found your equivalency. Otherwise, they are not equivalent. P and Q are the inputs and X is the output.
P Q | X P Q | X
------ 0 0 | 1 0 0 | 1 0 1 | 1 0 1 | 0 1 0 | 1 1 0 | 0 1 1 | 0 1 1 | 0
Since the truth tables are not equal, not P and Q is not equivalent to not P and not Q.
Perhaps you meant "Is NOT(P AND Q) equivalent to NOT(P) AND NOT(Q)?"
NOT(P AND Q) can be thought of intuitively as "Not both P and Q." Which if you think about, you can see that it would be true if something were P but not Q, Q but not P, and neither P nor Q-- so long as they're not both true at the same time.
Now, "NOT(P) AND NOT(Q)" is clearly _only_ true when BOTH P and Q are false. So there are cases where NOT(P AND Q) is true but NOT(P) AND NOT(Q) is false (an example would be True(P) and False(Q)).
NOT(P AND Q) does have an equivalence however, according to De Morgan's Law. The NOT can be distributed, but in doing so we have to change the "AND" to an "OR".
NOT(P AND Q) is equivalent to NOT(P) OR NOT(Q)
By inverting the numbers. For example, if:2 x 3 = 6 then: 6 / 3 = 2
A number is said to be rational if it can be expressed as a ratio of two integers. That is, a number x is rational if and only if it is equivalent to p/q for some integers p and q where q is not 0.
P! / q!(p-q)!
If B is between P and Q, then: P<B<Q
4(p + q), or 4p + 4q
p --> q and q --> p are not equivalent p --> q and q --> (not)p are equivalent The truth table shows this. pq p --> q q -->(not)p f f t t f t t t t f f f t t t t
If the two numbers are p and q (where q is non zero) then the equivalent fraction is p/q.
Yes. For example, the rational number p/q is equivalent to the number (a*p)/(a*q) for any non-zero number a.
Given one ratio, p/q, you will obtain an equivalent ratio if you multiply p and q by any non-zero integer.
P={1,3,5,7,9} q={2,4,6,8,10}
Two ratios, p/q and r/s (q and s non-zero) are equal if p/q - r/s = 0.
Converse: If p r then p q and q rContrapositive: If not p r then not (p q and q r) = If not p r then not p q or not q r Inverse: If not p q and q r then not p r = If not p q or not q r then not p r
If you start with a fraction p/q and are told that x/y is an equivalent fraction, then the simplest check is to cross-multiply: p*y must be equal to q*x.
By inverting the numbers. For example, if:2 x 3 = 6 then: 6 / 3 = 2
The sum of p and q means (p+q). The difference of p and q means (p-q).
A rational number is any number that can be expressed as a ratio of two integers, p and q in the form p/q where q>0.
A rational number is one that can be expressed as a ratio of two integers. That is, a number x is rational if and only if it is equivalent to p/q for some integers p and q where q is not 0.