This is most commonly known as the transitive property or the law of syllogism postulate
if you got A and it is the same as B, and B is C, then A is C
a--->b
b--->c
Just remove the b
so
a--->c
Basically, the answer is yes.
from another wikianswers page: say that 'a' is rational, and that 'b' is irrational. assume that a + b equals a rational number, called c. so a + b = c subtract a from both sides. you get b = c - a. but c - a is a rational number subtracted from a rational number, which should equal another rational number. However, b is an irrational number in our equation, so our assumption that a + b equals a rational number must be wrong.
X squared plus b squared equals c squared when x and b squared equals 5 - 2 what does c equal
657
49 + c units
a + b + c = 180 b = 3a c = 5a Substituting the values of b and c into the first equation. a + 3a + 5a = 180 or 9a = 180 so that a = 20 then b = 3a = 3*20 = 60 and c = 5a = 5*20 = 100
Yes.
2a. (a, b and c are all equal.)
They all equal each other. a = b = c = d = e e = a e = b e = c e = d e = e
a=24 b=16 c=18
A+c= 2a+b
2
It equals b times c.
Because there is no way to define the divisors, the equations cannot be evaluated.
the answer is a
No. Suppose A = {1,2}, B = {1,2,3,4,5,6} and C = {1,2,3,5,7,11}. The intersection of A with B is {1,2}, the intersection of A with C is also {1,2}, but B is not equal to C.
That depends on the value of the variables (A, B, and C). It can be anything.
a = b changes the value of a and makes it the same as the value of b. a == b does not change the values of a or b. It is an expression that is equal to 1 if a and b are the same or to 0 if a and b are different. For example: if ( a == b) { c = d;} means if a and b are the same, then set c equal to d. C does let you write the following: if ( a = b) { c = d;} This sets a equal to the value of b, and then if the new value of a is non-zero, it sets c equal to d. You can do this, but if you see a single equal sign in an "if" condition, that usually (but not always) is a mistake.