No.
Some functions have no inverse.
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a function is a added to the iverse function and multiply the SQURED AND CUBIC OR ethc......
No, because the inverse function would not work. Every time you multiply a positive by a positive you get a positive.
The inverse of the inverse is the original function, so that the product of the two functions is equivalent to the identity function on the appropriate domain. The domain of a function is the range of the inverse function. The range of a function is the domain of the inverse function.
The original function's RANGE becomes the inverse function's domain.
The inverse of the cubic function is the cube root function.