When graphing functions, an inverse function will be symmetric to the original function about the line y = x. Since a constant function is simply a straight, horizontal line, its inverse would be a straight, vertical line. However, a vertical line is not a function. Therefore, constant functions do not have inverse functions.
Another way of figuring this question can be achieved using the horizontal line test. Look at your original function on a graph. If any horizontal line intersects the graph of the original function more than once, the original function does not have an inverse. The constant function is a horizontal line. Under the assumptions of the horizontal line test, a horizontal line infinitely will cross the original function. Thus, the constant function does not have an inverse function.
x = constant.
An exponential function is of the form y = a^x, where a is a constant. The inverse of this is x = a^y --> y = ln(x)/ln(a), where ln() means the natural log.
The inverse of the inverse is the original function, so that the product of the two functions is equivalent to the identity function on the appropriate domain. The domain of a function is the range of the inverse function. The range of a function is the domain of the inverse function.
No. The inverse of an exponential function is a logarithmic function.
-6 is a number, not a function and so there is not an inverse function.
The inverse of the cubic function is the cube root function.
The original function's RANGE becomes the inverse function's domain.
X squared is not an inverse function; it is a quadratic function.
it doesnt have an inverse since only square matrices have an inverse
The inverse function means the opposite calculation. The inverse function of "add 6" would be "subtract 6".
No, zero does not have an inverse. The inverse of x is 1/x. x<>0