First, you can take the constant factor 3 out, to obtain 3 times the limit of (1 - cos x) / x. Since this is of the form 0/0, you can use L'Hôpital's rule, which states that in such cases, you can take the derivative of both numerator and denominator. This results in the limit (as x approaches 0) of sin x / x, that is, 1 / 1 = 1. So, the final result is 3 times the limit of 1 = 3.
That would be 0. (But that was too easy. Did you mean something else?)
No, limit can tend to any finite number including 0. It is also possible that the limit does not tend to any finite value or approaches infinity. Example: The limit of x^2+5 tend to 6 as x approaches -1.
Unfortunately, the browser used by Answers.com for posting questions is incapable of accepting mathematical symbols. This means that we cannot see the mathematically critical parts of the question. We are, therefore unable to determine what exactly the question is about and so cannot give a proper answer to your question. Please resubmit your question spelling out the symbols as "plus", "minus", "times", "divided by", "equals" etc. As it appears, you seem to be seeking the limit of sin(4x)*sin(6x) as x tends to 0. Both components of the product tend to 0 as x tens to 0 and so the limit is 0. Bit I suspect that is not the limit that you are looking for.
2 sin2(x) + sin(x) - 1 = 0(2 sin + 1) (sin - 1) = 0Either 2 sin(x) + 1 = 02sin(x) = -1sin(x) = -0.5x = 210°, 330°or sin(x) - 1 = 0sin(x) = 1x = 90°
As X approaches infinity it approaches close as you like to 0. so, sin(-1/2)
The limit is 0.
The limit of cos2(x)/x as x approaches 0 does not exist. As x approaches 0 from the left, the limit is negative infinity. As x approaches 0 from the right, the limit is positive infinity. These two values would have to be equal for a limit to exist.
There is no limit. As x approaches 0, sin 1/x oscillates between -1 and 1 infinitely many times. This is considered a form of divergence.
You can use the L'hopital's rule to calculate the limit of e5x -1 divided by sin x as x approaches 0.
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So, we want the limit of (sin2(x))/x as x approaches 0. We can use L'Hopital's Rule: If you haven't learned derivatives yet, please send me a message and I will both provide you with a different way to solve this problem and teach you derivatives! Using L'Hopital's Rule yields: the limit of (sin2(x))/x as x approaches 0=the limit of (2sinxcosx)/1 as x approaches zero. Plugging in, we, get that the limit is 2sin(0)cos(0)/1=2(0)(1)=0. So the original limit in question is zero.
The limit as x approaches zero of sin(x) over x can be determined using the squeeze theorem.For 0 < x < pi/2, sin(x) < x < tan(x)Divide by sin(x), and you get 1 < x/sin(x) < tan(x)/sin(x)That is the same as 1 < x/sin(x) < 1/cos(x)But the limit as x approaches zero of 1/cos(x) is 1,so 1 < x/sin(x) < 1which means that the limit as x approaches zero of x over sin(x) is 1, and that also means the inverse; the limit as x approaches zero of sin(x) over x is 1.You can also solve this using deriviatives...The deriviative d/dxx is 1, at all points. The deriviative d/dxsin(x) at x=0 is also 1.This means you have the division of two functions, sin(x) and x, at a point where their slope is the same, so the limit reduces to 1 over 1, which is 1.
When the limit as the function approaches from the left, doesn't equal the limit as the function approaches from the right. For example, let's look at the function 1/x as x approaches 0. As it approaches 0 from the left, it travels towards negative infinity. As it approaches 0 from the right, it travels towards positive infinity. Therefore, the limit of the function as it approaches 0 does not exist.
When the limit of x approaches 0 x approaches the value of x approaches infinity.
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