If I understand you correctly, yes. Normally we write y=sin(x) or y=cos(x), and because we make our x-axis run horizontally and our y-axis run vertically, this gives us a wave running left-to-right. If instead we wrote x=sin(y) or x=cos(y), the waves would run bottom-to-top. However, notice that in the first case, y is a function of x, but in the second case, x is a function of y. If we wished to make x=sin(y) or x=cos(y) into a function of x, we need to restrict the values of y in the domain so that it will pass the vertical line test. These "restricted" functions have a name, namely arcsin and arccos, and they are referred to as the inverse trigonometric functions.
cos(2x) = 1 - 2(sin(x)^2), so sin(x)^2 = 1/2 - 1/2*cos(2x).
sin(3A) = sin(2A + A) = sin(2A)*cos(A) + cos(2A)*sin(A)= sin(A+A)*cos(A) + cos(A+A)*sin(A) = 2*sin(A)*cos(A)*cos(A) + {cos^2(A) - sin^2(A)}*sin(A) = 2*sin(A)*cos^2(A) + sin(a)*cos^2(A) - sin^3(A) = 3*sin(A)*cos^2(A) - sin^3(A)
Like normal expansion of brackets, along with: cos(A + B) = cos A cos B - sin A sin B sin(A + B) = sin A cos B + cos A sin B 5(cos 20 + i sin 20) × 8(cos 15 + i sin 15) = 5×8 × (cos 20 + i sin 20)(cos 15 + i sin 15) = 40(cos 20 cos 15 + i sin 15 cos 20 + i cos 15 sin 20 + i² sin 20 sin 15) = 40(cos 20 cos 15 - sin 20 cos 15 + i(sin 15 cos 20 + cos 15 sin 20)) = 40(cos(20 +15) + i sin(15 + 20)) = 40(cos 35 + i sin 35)
cos*cot + sin = cos*cos/sin + sin = cos2/sin + sin = (cos2 + sin2)/sin = 1/sin = cosec
To show that (cos tan = sin) ??? Remember that tan = (sin/cos) When you substitute it for tan, cos tan = cos (sin/cos) = sin QED
no
cos(2x) = 1 - 2(sin(x)^2), so sin(x)^2 = 1/2 - 1/2*cos(2x).
[sin - cos + 1]/[sin + cos - 1] = [sin + 1]/cosiff [sin - cos + 1]*cos = [sin + 1]*[sin + cos - 1]iff sin*cos - cos^2 + cos = sin^2 + sin*cos - sin + sin + cos - 1iff -cos^2 = sin^2 - 11 = sin^2 + cos^2, which is true,
sin(3A) = sin(2A + A) = sin(2A)*cos(A) + cos(2A)*sin(A)= sin(A+A)*cos(A) + cos(A+A)*sin(A) = 2*sin(A)*cos(A)*cos(A) + {cos^2(A) - sin^2(A)}*sin(A) = 2*sin(A)*cos^2(A) + sin(a)*cos^2(A) - sin^3(A) = 3*sin(A)*cos^2(A) - sin^3(A)
(2 sin^2 x - 1)/(sin x - cos x) = sin x + cos x (sin^2 x + sin^2 x - 1)/(sin x - cos x) =? sin x + cos x [sin^2 x - (1 - sin^2 x)]/(sin x - cos x) =? sin x + cos x (sin^2 x - cos^2 x)/(sin x - cos x) =? sin x + cos x [(sin x - cos x)(sin x + cos x)]/(sin x - cos x) =? sin x + cos x sin x + cos x = sin x + cos x
Like normal expansion of brackets, along with: cos(A + B) = cos A cos B - sin A sin B sin(A + B) = sin A cos B + cos A sin B 5(cos 20 + i sin 20) × 8(cos 15 + i sin 15) = 5×8 × (cos 20 + i sin 20)(cos 15 + i sin 15) = 40(cos 20 cos 15 + i sin 15 cos 20 + i cos 15 sin 20 + i² sin 20 sin 15) = 40(cos 20 cos 15 - sin 20 cos 15 + i(sin 15 cos 20 + cos 15 sin 20)) = 40(cos(20 +15) + i sin(15 + 20)) = 40(cos 35 + i sin 35)
cos*cot + sin = cos*cos/sin + sin = cos2/sin + sin = (cos2 + sin2)/sin = 1/sin = cosec
sin cubed + cos cubed (sin + cos)( sin squared - sin.cos + cos squared) (sin + cos)(1 + sin.cos)
You need to make use of the formulae for sin(A+B) and cos(A+B), and that cos is an even function: sin(A+B) = cos A sin B + sin A cos B cos(A+B) = cos A cos B - sin A sin B cos even fn → cos(-x) = cos(x) To prove: (cos A + sin A)(cos 2A + sin 2A) = cos A + sin 3A The steps are to work with the left hand side, expand the brackets, collect [useful] terms together, apply A+B formula above (backwards) and apply even nature of cos function: (cos A + sin A)(cos 2A + sin 2A) = cos A cos 2A + cos A sin 2A + sin A cos 2A + sin A sin 2A = (cos A cos 2A + sin A sin 2A) + (cos A sin 2A + sin A cos 2A) = cos(A - 2A) + sin(A + 2A) = cos(-A) + sin 3A = cos A + sin 3A which is the right hand side as required.
To show that (cos tan = sin) ??? Remember that tan = (sin/cos) When you substitute it for tan, cos tan = cos (sin/cos) = sin QED
'csc' = 1/sin'tan' = sin/cosSo it must follow that(cos) (csc) / (tan) = (cos) (1/sin)/(sin/cos) = (cos) (1/sin) (cos/sin) = (cos/sin)2
That line is [ y = 2 cos(2x) ].