No it is not if you have a single inequality. It you had a single point as the solution, then it effect you would have an equality. If you have x> or equal to 1 and x< or equal to 1 then the graph is the single point 1. So it is possible with systems of inequalities.
0
If the slope of a line is 0 then it will either be a horizontal or vertical line depending on where it crosses the x or y.axis
x=9
The shaded area of the graph of an inequality show the solution to the inequality. For example, if the area below y = x is shaded it is showing those ordered pairs which solve y < x.
No it is not if you have a single inequality. It you had a single point as the solution, then it effect you would have an equality. If you have x> or equal to 1 and x< or equal to 1 then the graph is the single point 1. So it is possible with systems of inequalities.
"y - x + 1" is not an inequality. It is a simple expression. If you want something like "y - x + 1 > 0" that would be an inequality. Rephrase and resubmit.
8
0
if you have y <= f(x), then graph the function y = f(x) with a solid line, then shade everything below that graph.
If the slope of a line is 0 then it will either be a horizontal or vertical line depending on where it crosses the x or y.axis
x=9
0
The shaded area of the graph of an inequality show the solution to the inequality. For example, if the area below y = x is shaded it is showing those ordered pairs which solve y < x.
You can do the equation Y 2x plus 3 on a graph. On this graph the Y would equal 5 and X would equal to 0.
a straight line with a slope of 1 with an intersection at point (0, 0)
"x equals 0" is an equality, not an inequality. The question is, therefore, not consistent.