There is nothing to solve in this equation because there is no =. If you accidentally omitted what the expression equals then resubmit it and I'll be happy to look at it
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Cos x = 1 / Sec x so 1 / Cos x = Sec x Then Tan x = Sin x / Cos x = Sin x * (1 / Cos x) = Sin x * Sec x
Rewrite sec x as 1/cos x. Then, sec x sin x = (1/cos x)(sin x) = sin x/cos x. By definition, this is equal to tan x.
In algebra and trigonometry we can have various functions such as sin, cosine , tan and sec and to solve trigonometric equations we should know relation between them . sec x = 1 / cos x. tan x = sin x/ cos x. (1- sinx )/ cos x.
Prove that tan(x)sin(x) = sec(x)-cos(x) tan(x)sin(x) = [sin(x) / cos (x)] sin(x) = sin2(x) / cos(x) = [1-cos2(x)] / cos(x) = 1/cos(x) - cos2(x)/ cos(x) = sec(x)-cos(x) Q.E.D
cot(x)=1/tan(x)=1/(sin(x)/cos(x))=cos(x)/sin(x) csc(x)=1/sin(x) sec(x)=1/cos(x) Therefore, (csc(x))2/cot(x)=(1/(sin(x))2)/cot(x)=(1/(sin(x))2)/(cos(x)/sin(x))=(1/(sin(x))2)(sin(x)/cos(x))=(1/sin(x))*(1/cos(x))=csc(x)*sec(x)